A 52-year-old man presents to an urgent care clinic with progressive right calf swelling and pain. The physician strongly suspects a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and performs a point-of-care D-dimer test, which returns positive. The facility's only ultrasound machine is currently undergoing unexpected maintenance. The physician decides to administer a stat dose of rivaroxaban and discharges the patient to home, instructing him to get a venous ultrasound at a neighboring imaging center the following morning. During this encounter, the physician fails to reconcile the patient's home medications, overlooking his chronic use of carbamazepine, a potent CYP3A4 inducer that significantly decreases rivaroxaban efficacy.
Six hours later, the patient is brought to the local emergency department with sudden, severe dyspnea and hypoxia, ultimately requiring systemic thrombolysis for a massive pulmonary embolism.
An institutional root cause analysis determines several factors led to this outcome: the failure to fully evaluate the leg pain, the overlooked pharmacokinetic interaction, the unsafe discharge plan, and the facility's complete lack of a contingency protocol for managing acute vascular risks during imaging equipment downtime.
Which of the following best categorizes the facility's lack of a contingency protocol?
- Latent errorCevap
- BActive error
- CPreventable adverse event
- DSentinel event
- ENear miss