A -year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up visit. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia months ago and was started on olanzapine. The patient reports that his auditory hallucinations have completely resolved and he is tolerating the medication well, although he has noticed an increased appetite. His blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and body mass index is kg/m (up from kg/m at baseline). Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in monitoring this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Obtain a fasting lipid panel and fasting blood glucoseCevap
- BObtain an absolute neutrophil count
- CAdvise the patient to immediately discontinue olanzapine
- DSchedule a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan
- EOrder a non-contrast CT scan of the head
Cevap
The correct next step is to obtain a fasting lipid panel and fasting blood glucose to evaluate for medication-induced metabolic syndrome.
The correct answer involves evaluating for metabolic derangements. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA) that is highly efficacious but carries one of the highest risks for metabolic syndrome among SGAs, comparable to clozapine. The patient's significant weight gain over just months strongly signals the onset of metabolic side effects. Current guidelines mandate routine monitoring of body weight, waist circumference, blood pressure, fasting plasma glucose, and fasting lipid profiles at baseline, weeks, and annually thereafter for patients on these medications.
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Anahtar Kavram
Patients taking second-generation antipsychotics, particularly olanzapine and clozapine, require routine monitoring for metabolic syndrome, which includes serial assessments of weight, fasting blood glucose, and fasting lipid panels.