A 58-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for new-onset severe abdominal pain. He was admitted 6 hours ago after presenting with sudden, tearing interscapular pain. At the time of admission, computed tomography angiography revealed a Stanford Type B aortic dissection originating just distal to the left subclavian artery and extending to the aortic bifurcation. He was appropriately managed with intravenous esmolol and nicardipine infusions, which reduced his heart rate to 62/min and blood pressure to 112/68 mmHg, resulting in the resolution of his back pain. Currently, he reports diffuse, constant abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the physical examination findings. The abdomen is soft and non-distended, with no rebound tenderness or guarding. His current blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 64/min. Laboratory studies show a serum lactic acid level of 5.2 mmol/L, up from 1.1 mmol/L on admission. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Thoracic endovascular aortic repairCevap
- BImmediate exploratory laparotomy
- CIntravenous heparin infusion
- DMagnetic resonance angiography of the abdomen
- EIncrease the nicardipine infusion rate