A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden-onset, right-sided pleuritic chest pain that began 4 hours ago. He denies shortness of breath, hemoptysis, palpitations, or syncope. His medical history is significant only for a left tibial shaft fracture sustained 3 weeks ago, which is currently immobilized in a short-leg cast. He takes no daily medications and has no history of malignancy.
| Vital Sign | Result |
|---|---|
| Temperature | 37.1°C (98.8°F) |
| Blood pressure | 135/82 mmHg |
| Pulse | 88/min |
| Respirations | 16/min |
| SpO2 | 98% on room air |
Physical examination reveals a well-appearing man in no acute distress. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The right calf is non-tender and without edema.
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Platelet count | 250,000/mm³ |
| Creatinine | 0.9 mg/dL |
| Troponin I | <0.01 ng/mL |
| Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) | 45 pg/mL (normal: <100 pg/mL) |
Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography demonstrates a segmental pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals a normal right ventricular size and function. The patient is administered a loading dose of oral apixaban. He is fully independent with his activities of daily living despite his cast. He lives with his wife and has excellent health insurance, with a follow-up appointment with his primary care physician already scheduled for tomorrow morning.
Based on the current evaluation, which of the following is the most appropriate disposition for this patient?
- Discharge home with close outpatient follow-upCevap
- BAdmit to the hospital observation unit for 24-48 hours
- CAdmit to the general medical floor
- DAdmit to the intermediate care (step-down) unit
- EDischarge to a skilled nursing facility