A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to confusion, severe generalized headache, and high fever that started 12 hours ago. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F), blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical examination, the patient is somnolent but arousable to painful stimuli. He demonstrates marked resistance to passive neck flexion. Neurologic examination reveals a right-sided pronator drift and asymmetric right-sided hyperreflexia. Initial laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³ with 85% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Obtain blood cultures and administer empiric intravenous antibiotics and dexamethasoneCevap
- BPerform an immediate lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis
- CPerform a non-contrast CT scan of the head prior to any therapeutic intervention
- DOrder an MRI of the brain and spine with intravenous contrast
- EAdminister intravenous mannitol and arrange for emergent neurosurgical consultation