A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting a two-month history of a persistent left-sided scrotal mass that feels like a 'bag of worms.' The mass does not decrease in size when he lies flat. He also reports intermittent episodes of pink-tinged urine over the past month. His past medical history is significant for a 30-pack-year smoking history, though he quit 5 years ago. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, and a BMI of 28 kg/m2. Physical examination confirms a left-sided varicocele that remains prominent in the supine position. Laboratory testing reveals a hemoglobin of 19.2 g/dL and a hematocrit of 58%. Which of the following best describes the molecular or pathophysiologic mechanism most directly responsible for the laboratory abnormality seen in this patient?
- Inappropriate stabilization of hypoxia-inducible factor leading to autonomous erythropoietin synthesisCevap
- BConstitutive activation of Janus kinase 2 in hematopoietic stem cells
- CPhysiologic compensatory erythropoiesis driven by chronic arterial hypoxemia
- DRelative hemoconcentration secondary to decreased effective circulating plasma volume
- EEctopic production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide by malignant cells