A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services due to severe, crushing substernal chest pain that began one hour ago while he was resting. The pain radiates to his left jaw and is associated with profound dizziness and diaphoresis. His medical history is significant for hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On arrival, he appears ashen and lethargic. Vital signs show a temperature of 36.6°C (97.9°F), blood pressure of 74/42 mmHg, heart rate of 112/min, respiratory rate of 20/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% on ambient air. Physical examination demonstrates prominent jugular venous distension, but pulmonary auscultation reveals clear lung fields bilaterally without crackles or wheezes. A rapid 12-lead electrocardiogram demonstrates 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- Administration of a rapid intravenous isotonic crystalloid bolusCevap
- BAdministration of sublingual nitroglycerin
- CUrgent consultation with interventional cardiology for percutaneous coronary intervention
- DObtaining a right-sided electrocardiogram
- EComputed tomography angiography of the chest