A 60-year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit on day 10 of her hospitalization. She was initially admitted for an acute submassive pulmonary embolism and started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. On hospital day 6, her platelet count dropped abruptly from a baseline of 240,000/mm³ to 70,000/mm³. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) was suspected; heparin was immediately discontinued, and a continuous intravenous infusion of argatroban was initiated. Subsequent enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and serotonin release assay (SRA) confirmed the diagnosis of HIT.
Laboratory results over the last few days are as follows:
| Hospital Day | Platelet Count | aPTT (sec) |
|---|---|---|
| Day 6 | 70,000/mm³ | 45 |
| Day 8 | 110,000/mm³ | 65 |
| Day 10 | 165,000/mm³ | 68 |
The patient is clinically stable with no signs of active bleeding or recurrent thrombosis. The care team plans to transition her to oral warfarin for long-term anticoagulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate protocol for monitoring and evaluating this patient's transition to oral warfarin therapy?
- AInitiate warfarin concurrently, overlap for at least 5 days, and discontinue argatroban when the INR reaches a target of 2.0 to 3.0.
- BDiscontinue argatroban, wait 4 to 6 hours for drug clearance, and then initiate warfarin to avoid additive bleeding risk.
- CInitiate warfarin concurrently, and discontinue argatroban immediately, monitoring the INR daily until it is therapeutic.
- DInitiate warfarin concurrently, and transition from argatroban to subcutaneous enoxaparin to serve as the bridge until the INR is therapeutic.
- Initiate warfarin concurrently, discontinue argatroban when the combined INR exceeds 4.0, and recheck the INR in 4 to 6 hours.Cevap