A 65-year-old man is hospitalized in the intensive care unit for management of severe sepsis secondary to pneumonia. He was started on prophylactic subcutaneous unfractionated heparin upon admission. On hospital day 6, his platelet count drops precipitously from a baseline of to . He has no evidence of active bleeding. Physical examination reveals a new, swollen, and tender right calf. A presumptive clinical diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) with thrombosis is made. All heparin products are immediately discontinued, and a continuous intravenous infusion of argatroban is ordered.
Which of the following monitoring and treatment evaluation steps are strictly indicated in the ongoing management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Titrate the argatroban infusion to maintain the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) at to times the patient's baseline value.Cevap
- Assess the platelet count daily to ensure recovery to greater than prior to transitioning to an oral vitamin K antagonist.Cevap
- CInitiate oral warfarin therapy immediately to overlap with argatroban and expedite the transition to outpatient management.
- DOrder a prophylactic platelet transfusion to maintain the platelet count above and prevent spontaneous hemorrhage.
- EDelay the initiation of argatroban until a serotonin release assay (SRA) returns positive to definitively confirm the diagnosis.