A 42-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for a 1-year history of progressive weight gain, new-onset facial hair growth, and easy bruising. Her blood pressure is 155/95 mmHg, and her BMI is 34 kg/m^2. Physical examination reveals facial plethora, supraclavicular fat pads, and broad violaceous striae across her abdomen. Proximal muscle weakness is noted on neurologic examination. Initial laboratory evaluation shows a 24-hour urine free cortisol level that is 4 times the upper limit of normal. A low-dose (1 mg) overnight dexamethasone suppression test demonstrates a morning serum cortisol of 14 µg/dL (normal: < 1.8 µg/dL). Subsequent testing reveals a plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level of 85 pg/mL (normal: 10-60 pg/mL). An MRI of the pituitary gland is performed and demonstrates a 4-mm hypoenhancing lesion in the right anterior pituitary gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Inferior petrosal sinus samplingCevap
- BTranssphenoidal surgical resection
- CHigh-dose (8 mg) dexamethasone suppression test
- DComputed tomography of the chest and abdomen
- EPeripheral corticotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test