A 62-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department after arriving via ambulance. She collapsed at the baggage claim of a local airport following a 14-hour international flight. Paramedics report she had a witnessed syncopal episode, regained consciousness after approximately two minutes, but currently remains profoundly short of breath and lightheaded. Her past medical history is notable for active hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer, for which she is currently receiving chemotherapy. On arrival, the patient appears in severe acute distress, diaphoretic, and cyanotic. Vital signs are: Temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), Heart rate 138/min, Blood pressure 72/38 mm Hg, Respiratory rate 34/min, and Oxygen saturation 86% on a 15 L/min non-rebreather mask. Physical examination reveals prominent jugular venous distention and a loud pulmonic component of the second heart sound. Lung fields are clear to auscultation bilaterally. A bedside point-of-care ultrasound is performed immediately, demonstrating a severely dilated right ventricle with bowing of the interventricular septum into the left ventricle. There is no pericardial effusion. Which of the following is the single most urgent initial step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous administration of alteplaseCevap
- BTransport to radiology for computed tomography pulmonary angiography
- CRapid intravenous infusion of 2 liters of normal saline
- DImmediate sequence intubation with positive pressure ventilation
- EImmediate transfer to the intensive care unit for invasive hemodynamic monitoring