A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the oncology ward for management of intractable bone pain secondary to metastatic breast cancer. Her pain has been reasonably controlled for the past month on high-dose extended-release oral morphine, with immediate-release morphine used as needed for breakthrough pain. Over the past 48 hours, her family reports that she has become increasingly confused, agitated, and restless. On physical examination, the patient is disoriented and exhibits spontaneous, irregular jerking movements of her extremities. When the physician gently palpates her arm to check her pulse, she grimaces and cries out in severe pain. Laboratory studies reveal a blood urea nitrogen of 42 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL (baseline 0.9 mg/dL one week ago). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue morphine and initiate a continuous intravenous fentanyl infusionCevap
- BAdminister intravenous naloxone to rapidly reverse the suspected opioid toxicity
- CIncrease the dose of immediate-release morphine to address the worsening pain
- DDischarge the patient to a home hospice program for comfort care
- ERequest a psychiatric consultation to determine the patient's legal competence