A 29-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for sudden-onset pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. CT pulmonary angiography confirms an acute pulmonary embolism, and she is immediately started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. Her past medical history is significant for three consecutive spontaneous first-trimester abortions. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, pulse 102/min, and respirations 18/min. She is hemodynamically stable. The medical team strongly suspects an underlying antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) or other inherited thrombophilia. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy for the diagnostic laboratory evaluation of this patient's suspected hypercoagulable state?
- Measure anticardiolipin antibodies and anti-beta-2 glycoprotein-I antibodies now; defer lupus anticoagulant testing until after heparin therapy is discontinuedCevap
- BMeasure lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin antibodies, and anti-beta-2 glycoprotein-I antibodies immediately to establish a definitive diagnosis before discharge
- CMeasure antithrombin, protein C, and protein S activity levels during this admission to rapidly rule out the most common inherited thrombophilias
- DOrder a transesophageal echocardiogram to evaluate for Libman-Sacks endocarditis prior to obtaining any hypercoagulability laboratory panels
- EPerform a prolonged mixing study with normal pooled plasma immediately to definitively differentiate a factor deficiency from a circulating inhibitor