A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. He does not smoke or use illicit substances. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Pulse oximetry shows 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals clear lungs, normal heart sounds, and no lower extremity edema or calf tenderness. Laboratory studies are notable for a high-sensitivity troponin T of < 0.01 ng/mL and an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) of 60 pg/mL (normal: < 125 pg/mL). Renal function is normal. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram demonstrates a segmental pulmonary embolism in the right lower lobe. The right-to-left ventricular diameter ratio is 0.8. The patient is accompanied by his wife, and they live in an apartment 10 minutes from the hospital. He demonstrates clear understanding of his diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate disposition and initial management plan for this patient?
- Discharge home with a prescription for a direct oral anticoagulantCevap
- BAdmit to the general medical floor for initiation of parenteral anticoagulation and transition to an oral agent
- CAdmit to the intensive care unit for continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin and close hemodynamic monitoring
- DAdmit to the step-down unit for continuous telemetry, as the detectable NT-proBNP level indicates an intermediate-high risk pulmonary embolism
- EDischarge to a skilled nursing facility for supervised administration of subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin