A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for routine monitoring of his anticoagulation therapy. He has a history of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 2 years with a stable target International Normalized Ratio (INR) between 2.0 and 3.0. Last week, he was prescribed a 7-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. The patient reports feeling well and denies any bruising, hematuria, melena, or other signs of bleeding. His vital signs are within normal limits. Today, his laboratory results show an INR of 5.4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Omit the next 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck the INR in 1 to 2 daysCevap
- BAdminister oral vitamin K and decrease the weekly warfarin dose
- CAdminister intravenous vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
- DContinue the current warfarin dose and recheck the INR in 1 week
- EDiscontinue warfarin and immediately initiate an oral direct thrombin inhibitor
Cevap
Omit the next 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck the INR in 1 to 2 days
The correct approach for a patient with an INR between 4.5 and 10.0 and no evidence of bleeding is to omit the next 1 to 2 doses of warfarin, monitor the INR closely, and resume therapy at an appropriately adjusted dose once the INR falls back into the therapeutic range. This patient's supratherapeutic INR is a direct result of a pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, a well-known inhibitor of CYP2C9. Because the patient is entirely asymptomatic and hemodynamically stable, conservative management with dose withholding is the safest and most effective standard of care.
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Anahtar Kavram
Management of supratherapeutic INR without bleeding