A 62-year-old man with a 12-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease is evaluated during a routine follow-up visit. One month ago, his hemoglobin A1c was 8.1% and his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was 45 mL/min/1.73 m . At that time, dapagliflozin was added to his medication regimen, which also includes metformin and lisinopril, to optimize glycemic control and slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy. Today, the patient reports feeling well overall. He denies urinary frequency, dysuria, dizziness, or orthopnea. He mentions having mild, intermittent bilateral knee pain due to osteoarthritis and asks for a medication recommendation. His blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg and heart rate is 74/min.
Laboratory studies obtained today show:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Serum sodium | 138 mEq/L |
| Serum potassium | 4.6 mEq/L |
| Serum urea nitrogen | 24 mg/dL |
| Serum creatinine | 1.8 mg/dL (Baseline 1.5 mg/dL) |
| eGFR | 37 mL/min/1.73 m |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Continue the current regimen and recommend oral acetaminophen for the knee painCevap
- BDiscontinue dapagliflozin to prevent progressive acute kidney injury
- CDiscontinue lisinopril due to the synergistic risk of glomerular ischemia
- DOrder a renal ultrasound with Doppler to evaluate for renal artery stenosis
- EContinue the current regimen and prescribe oral naproxen for the knee pain