A 48-year-old woman with a history of injection drug use is admitted to the hospital with high fevers, chills, and pleuritic chest pain. Blood cultures drawn on admission grow methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA). A transesophageal echocardiogram reveals a mobile vegetation on the tricuspid valve. Intravenous vancomycin therapy is initiated. On hospital day 5, the patient's serum creatinine increases from a baseline of to . Due to concern for vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity, her antimicrobial regimen is switched to intravenous daptomycin. The patient initially defervesces and improves, but days later, she develops recurrent fevers and bacteremia. Susceptibility testing of the new isolate demonstrates a daptomycin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of , indicating resistance. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism responsible for this pathogen's newly acquired resistance to the current antimicrobial therapy?
- Increased incorporation of positively charged phospholipids into the bacterial cell membraneCevap
- BSynthesis of a thickened peptidoglycan layer containing excess D-alanyl-D-alanine residues
- CEnzymatic modification of terminal peptidoglycan precursors to D-alanyl-D-lactate
- DDownregulation of outer membrane porin channels restricting antibiotic influx
- EConformational change in the 50S ribosomal subunit via target site methylation