A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden-onset, severe, "tearing" chest pain that radiates to between his shoulder blades. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by diabetic nephropathy. His current medications include amlodipine, lisinopril, and insulin glargine.
Blood pressure is 172/96 mmHg in the right arm and 148/88 mmHg in the left arm. Heart rate is 92/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals a new early diastolic murmur heard best at the right sternal border.
Laboratory testing shows a serum creatinine of (baseline ) and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of . An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy without acute ischemic changes. A portable chest radiograph demonstrates a widened mediastinum.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in imaging to confirm the diagnosis?
- Transesophageal echocardiographyCevap
- BComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- CMagnetic resonance angiography of the chest
- DTransthoracic echocardiography
- EConventional thoracic aortography