A 61-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital for altered mental status. She was admitted 3 days ago for management of acute kidney injury secondary to ureteral obstruction. Her past medical history is significant for advanced cervical cancer, and her severe pelvic pain has been well controlled at home with high-dose extended-release oral morphine.
Today, the patient's partner reports that she has become progressively confused and agitated overnight. On examination, the patient is somnolent but groans and withdraws to light touch, demonstrating severe tactile allodynia. She frequently exhibits involuntary, rapid muscle jerks in all four extremities. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, heart rate of 98/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of 3.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.1 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's symptoms?
- AAdminister intravenous haloperidol and maintain the current morphine dose
- BRotate to an equianalgesic dose of extended-release oxycodone
- Discontinue morphine, provide intravenous hydration, and rotate to a reduced dose of intravenous fentanylCevap
- DAdminister intravenous naloxone
- EInitiate palliative sedation with a continuous midazolam infusion