A 74-year-old man is evaluated in the cardiology clinic 3 days after being discharged from the hospital. He had been admitted for highly symptomatic, recurrent atrial fibrillation, and oral amiodarone was initiated for rhythm control prior to discharge. His medical history is significant for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and a mechanical aortic valve replacement performed 4 years ago. His home medications include warfarin, digoxin, metoprolol succinate, and lisinopril. On the day of discharge, his international normalized ratio (INR) was 2.8 (target 2.5–3.5) and his serum digoxin level was 0.9 ng/mL (target 0.5–0.9 ng/mL). Today, the patient reports feeling well with no palpitations, visual disturbances, or bleeding. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Decrease the warfarin dose by 30% to 50% and decrease the digoxin dose by 50%Cevap
- BDecrease the digoxin dose by 50% and increase the warfarin dose by 25%
- CDecrease the warfarin dose by 30% to 50% and maintain the current digoxin dose
- DDiscontinue warfarin and initiate a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban
- EAdmit the patient to the hospital for continuous cardiac telemetry and intravenous heparin bridging