A 68-year-old man is evaluated on hospital day 6 for an abnormal laboratory result. He was admitted for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has been receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, azithromycin, and subcutaneous unfractionated heparin for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis. His admission platelet count was 260,000/mm³. Today's routine complete blood count reveals a platelet count of 115,000/mm³. Hemoglobin is 13.8 g/dL and leukocyte count is 9,500/mm³. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals no petechiae, purpura, or new extremity swelling. The physician immediately discontinues the subcutaneous heparin and initiates therapeutic anticoagulation with argatroban. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in laboratory evaluation?
- Anti-platelet factor 4 (PF4)-polyanion antibody immunoassayCevap
- BSerotonin release assay
- CProthrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, and D-dimer
- DAnti-glycoprotein IIb/IIIa and anti-Ib/IX antibody testing
- ERepeat complete blood count in 24 hours