A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with acute-onset lower back pain that radiates down the posterior right thigh and calf to the lateral foot. The pain began three days ago after he helped a friend move heavy furniture. He denies fever, weight loss, urinary incontinence, or saddle anesthesia. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, passive elevation of the patient's symptomatic right leg to 40 degrees produces sharp, shooting pain down the posterior right leg. Furthermore, passive elevation of his asymptomatic left leg to 45 degrees reproduces the exact same shooting pain down the right leg. Neurologic examination shows normal perianal sensation, 5/5 motor strength in the lower extremities, and intact symmetric deep tendon reflexes. A complete blood count drawn for a routine wellness check two days prior to symptom onset was notable only for an isolated leukocyte count of 11,200/mm³. Based on the interpretation of these physical examination findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in establishing the diagnosis and management?
- Recognize the findings as highly specific for lumbar nerve root compression and initiate a trial of conservative therapyCevap
- BOrder an immediate magnetic resonance imaging scan of the lumbar spine to confirm the anatomical level of the lesion
- CArrange for urgent neurosurgical evaluation, as the positive contralateral response indicates impending cauda equina syndrome
- DObtain blood cultures and start empiric antibiotics, as the examination findings combined with the leukocytosis suggest a spinal epidural abscess
- EPerform electromyography and nerve conduction studies to quantify the extent of axonal loss before initiating pharmacologic treatment