A 62-year-old man is hospitalized for the management of acute diverticulitis. He has been receiving intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole for hours, but his clinical condition has deteriorated. He continues to have a fever of () and complains of worsening severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals focal rebound tenderness in the left lower quadrant without diffuse abdominal rigidity. His leukocyte count has increased from to . A repeat computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast demonstrates a new rim-enhancing fluid collection adjacent to the sigmoid colon.
Which of the following are appropriate procedural and management steps at this time? (Select all that apply)
- Image-guided percutaneous catheter drainage of the fluid collectionCevap
- Continuation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic therapyCevap
- CImmediate exploratory laparotomy with a planned Hartmann procedure
- DUrgent diagnostic colonoscopy to rule out underlying colonic malignancy
- ELower gastrointestinal series with barium contrast to assess for fistulous tracts
Cevap
The correct interventions are image-guided percutaneous catheter drainage of the fluid collection and continuation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic therapy.
The patient has developed a complicated diverticulitis characterized by a macroscopic abscess. For hemodynamically stable patients with a localized diverticular abscess larger than , the standard of care is image-guided (CT or ultrasound) percutaneous catheter drainage combined with ongoing intravenous antibiotic therapy. This approach effectively provides source control while avoiding the significant morbidity and mortality associated with an emergency laparotomy, which often results in a temporary colostomy.
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In a hemodynamically stable patient, a diverticular abscess larger than should be managed with image-guided percutaneous catheter drainage and continuation of intravenous antibiotics.
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