During morning rounds on hospital day 5, a 65-year-old male patient is assessed. He was admitted for community-acquired pneumonia and has a medical history significant for a mechanical mitral valve replacement performed 4 years ago. His home medications include warfarin and metoprolol. Upon admission, empiric treatment was initiated with intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin. On hospital day 3, this regimen was changed to oral levofloxacin based on sputum culture susceptibilities.
His respiratory symptoms have largely resolved. When interviewed today, the patient denies any hemoptysis, hematuria, melena, or easy bruising. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination demonstrates a crisp mechanical first heart sound and lungs that are clear to auscultation bilaterally. There is no clinical evidence of petechiae or mucosal bleeding.
Morning laboratory studies show:
- Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
- Platelet count: 210,000/mm³
- Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
- International Normalized Ratio (INR): 7.4 (Admission INR: 2.8)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's anticoagulation?
- Withhold warfarin and monitor the International Normalized Ratio dailyCevap
- BWithhold warfarin and administer oral phytonadione
- CWithhold warfarin and administer prothrombin complex concentrate
- DDecrease the warfarin dose by 50% and continue daily administration
- EContinue the current warfarin dose and discontinue levofloxacin