A 71-year-old man with a history of a mechanical aortic valve replacement presents to the hospital with two weeks of low-grade fever, fatigue, and night sweats. Physical examination reveals a new early diastolic murmur and small, tender erythematous nodules on the pads of his fingers. Transesophageal echocardiography demonstrates an oscillating 0.8-cm vegetation on the prosthetic valve. Multiple blood cultures grow *Enterococcus faecalis*. Susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin but demonstrates high-level resistance to gentamicin. Consequently, the planned synergistic regimen of ampicillin and gentamicin is abandoned, and he is treated with ampicillin and ceftriaxone. Which of the following best describes the molecular mechanism responsible for this isolate's high-level resistance to gentamicin?
- Covalent modification of the antimicrobial molecule via enzymatic transfer of functional groupsCevap
- BTarget-site alteration of the 30S ribosomal subunit via chromosomal mutation
- CActive cellular extrusion of the drug via upregulated transmembrane efflux pumps
- DSubstitution of a terminal amino acid in cell-wall structural precursor peptides
- EDecreased intracellular drug accumulation secondary to outer membrane porin deletion