During a follow-up telehealth visit, a rheumatologist is evaluating a patient who was recently started on a chimeric monoclonal antibody for refractory rheumatoid arthritis. The initial infusion was administered 10 days ago without immediate complications. Today, the patient reports a 2-day history of low-grade fever, diffuse joint pain involving the wrists and ankles, and an intensely itchy rash. Photographs uploaded to the patient portal reveal widespread urticarial wheals with scattered areas of purpura. Subsequent laboratory evaluation demonstrates an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and significantly reduced levels of both C3 and C4. Urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria and 5 to 10 red blood cells per high-power field. Which of the following is the precise immunopathologic mechanism directly responsible for this patient's current clinical presentation?
- Consumption of classical pathway complement proteins by circulating antigen-antibody aggregatesCevap
- BMassive release of histamine and tryptase following IgE cross-linking on tissue mast cells
- CDirect binding of therapeutic antibodies to endothelial cell surface antigens leading to cytotoxicity
- DSensitization and subsequent activation of tissue macrophages by drug-specific T lymphocytes
- EInherited deficiency of early complement factors leading to defective clearance of apoptotic debris