A 72-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 4 of an admission for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He originally presented with dyspnea, wheezing, and a productive cough. His home medications include inhaled tiotropium, as-needed albuterol, and warfarin for a mechanical mitral valve (target INR 2.5-3.5). Upon admission, he was started on intravenous methylprednisolone, nebulized ipratropium-albuterol, and oral levofloxacin. Today, his dyspnea has completely resolved, and he is breathing comfortably on room air. He reports no chest pain, palpitations, or signs of bleeding. Vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse 82/min, respirations 14/min, and blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg. Laboratory studies obtained this morning show:
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Platelet count: 210,000/mm³
Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Prothrombin time (PT): 48 seconds
International normalized ratio (INR): 6.2
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Omit the next dose of warfarin and recheck the international normalized ratio tomorrowCevap
- BAdminister intravenous vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
- CDiscontinue levofloxacin and initiate trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- DOrder computed tomography angiography of the chest
- ETransfer the patient to the intensive care unit for continuous monitoring