A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance with a sudden onset of excruciating, tearing pain between his shoulder blades. The pain began one hour ago while he was mowing his lawn and has remained constant. He has a medical history of poorly controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 30-pack-year smoking history. On arrival, he is extremely agitated, diaphoretic, and in obvious distress. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 215/115 mmHg in the right arm and 185/95 mmHg in the left arm, heart rate of 118/min, and respiratory rate of 22/min. Pulse oximetry is 96% on room air. A bedside electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia and voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, but no ST-segment or T-wave abnormalities. Peripheral pulses are diminished in the left upper and lower extremities compared to the right. Which of the following is the most urgent initial step in the management of this patient?
- ATransport to radiology for computed tomography angiography of the aorta
- BAdministration of chewable aspirin and an intravenous heparin bolus
- CAdministration of intravenous sodium nitroprusside
- Initiation of an intravenous esmolol infusionCevap
- EProcedural sedation and transesophageal echocardiography