Soru

A 74-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family due to sudden, severe abdominal pain that began 8 hours ago. She has a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She was previously taking apixaban but discontinued it one month ago after sustaining a traumatic subdural hematoma from a mechanical fall. On arrival, the patient is lethargic and moaning in pain. Her temperature is $38.3^\circ\text{C}$ ($100.9^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $78/48 \text{ mmHg}$, pulse is $132/\text{min}$ and irregularly irregular, and respirations are $24/\text{min}$. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen that is rigidly tense. There is diffuse rebound tenderness, involuntary guarding, and absent bowel sounds. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of $22,000/\mu\text{L}$ and a serum lactate of $7.8 \text{ mmol/L}$. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?