All practice questions

2933 questions

Question 2441Question →

An alert and oriented client receiving treatment for a systemic infection decides to leave the facility Against Medical Advice (AMA). The registered nurse (RN) is managing a crisis on the unit and directs the practical nurse (PN) to obtain the client's signature on the AMA form. Upon entering the room, the client states, 'I just want to go home. The doctor hasn't been here today, and no one has explained what will happen if I leave now.' Which action is the priority for the practical nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Hold the AMA paperwork and contact the healthcare provider to counsel the client regarding the specific risks of leaving.

Answer

The practical nurse must hold the AMA paperwork and contact the healthcare provider to counsel the client regarding the specific risks of leaving.
Informed refusal, such as signing an Against Medical Advice (AMA) form, requires the same principles as informed consent. The healthcare provider is legally responsible for explaining the specific medical risks and consequences of refusing treatment. Because the client explicitly stated they do not understand the consequences of leaving, the practical nurse must withhold the document and notify the provider to counsel the client. The practical nurse's role is strictly limited to witnessing the signature after the provider has ensured the client is fully informed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's understanding of the AMA document.
The client explicitly states that no one has explained the medical consequences of leaving the facility.
A valid signature requires the client to be fully informed about the specific risks of refusing medical treatment.
2
Determine the appropriate scope of practice for the practical nurse regarding informed refusal.
The practical nurse recognizes that explaining the medical risks of leaving is the responsibility of the healthcare provider, not the nurse.
The practical nurse's role is strictly limited to witnessing a voluntary signature, but only after the provider has fulfilled the duty of disclosure.
3
Select the priority intervention.
The practical nurse declines to witness the form at this time and contacts the healthcare provider to speak with the client.
This ensures client safety and legal compliance with the principles of informed refusal before the AMA form is executed.

Key Concept

Advance Directives and Informed Consent
Question 2442Question →

A practical nurse is gathering supplies to provide hygiene care for a client who is on droplet precautions due to a suspected Haemophilus influenzae type b infection. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) will assist with the bed bath. Which actions indicate correct adherence to safety and infection control principles? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Fasten a surgical mask securely over the nose and mouth prior to entering the client's room.; Dedicate reusable equipment, such as a thermometer and stethoscope, for exclusive use by this client.; Place a standard medical mask on the client if transport to another department is necessary.

Answer

The correct actions include wearing a surgical mask prior to entry, dedicating reusable equipment exclusively to the client, and placing a standard mask on the client if transport is required.
Droplet precautions dictate that healthcare personnel must wear a surgical mask upon entry. Dedicating reusable equipment to the client minimizes cross-contamination, and placing a mask on the client during transport contains their respiratory secretions, protecting the facility at large.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the required isolation precautions based on the client's diagnosis.
Haemophilus influenzae type b requires droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions.
The pathogen is transmitted through large respiratory droplets generated by coughing, sneezing, or talking.
2
Determine the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and proper sequencing.
A surgical mask is required upon entry. Because a bed bath is being provided, a gown and gloves are also necessary. PPE must be donned properly (gown, then mask, then gloves) and doffed inside the room before exiting.
Correct PPE usage and sequencing prevent staff exposure and cross-contamination of the facility environment.
3
Evaluate the appropriateness of delegating tasks to the UAP during care.
The UAP can safely assist with the physical task of bathing but cannot evaluate skin integrity.
Nursing assessment and evaluation are strictly within the licensed nurse's scope of practice.

Key Concept

Droplet Precautions, PPE Sequencing, and Safe Delegation
Question 2443Question →

A practical nurse (PN) accidentally drops and shatters a large container of concentrated glutaraldehyde (a high-level disinfectant) in the unit's soiled utility room. The solution spills across the floor and immediately emits a pungent, irritating odor. Arrange the following actions in the priority order the PN should perform to manage the hazard and prevent injury.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first evacuate and isolate the area, secure the perimeter, notify the appropriate response team, consult the Safety Data Sheet (SDS), and finally don the required personal protective equipment (PPE) before clean-up.
When managing a hazardous chemical spill, the priority is always life safety and containment. The correct sequence follows standard emergency management principles: Isolate the hazard to stop immediate exposure, secure the perimeter to prevent secondary exposure, notify the emergency response team to mobilize resources, identify the specific precautions via the Safety Data Sheet (SDS), and finally, protect oneself with the correct PPE before any clean-up begins.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evacuate all personnel from the immediate area and firmly close the utility room door.
The hazard is isolated and immediate life safety is ensured.
The most critical initial action is to prevent acute exposure to the noxious fumes by removing people and containing the spill's environment.
2
Secure the perimeter by posting a warning sign or stationing a staff member outside the door.
Secondary exposure to unsuspecting staff is prevented.
Securing the area guarantees that no one accidentally walks into the hazard while the nurse is calling for help.
3
Notify the charge nurse and the facility's environmental or hazardous materials team.
The facility's emergency response protocol is activated.
Appropriate resources and specialized personnel must be mobilized to manage a major chemical spill.
4
Consult the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to determine specific hazards and required precautions.
The specific chemical risks and required protective measures are identified.
Clean-up protocols and necessary PPE cannot be accurately determined without referring to the SDS for the specific chemical.
5
Don the recommended personal protective equipment (PPE) prior to assisting with clean-up.
The nurse is protected against chemical exposure.
Proper PPE, as specified by the SDS, must be worn before any physical interaction with the hazardous material occurs.

Key Concept

Prioritization in hazardous materials management focuses on life safety (isolation and securing the area) before notification, identification (SDS), and mitigation.
Question 2444Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is documenting care at the unit nurses' station. A uniformed law enforcement officer approaches, presents an official badge, and requests the home address and phone number of a client currently admitted to the unit. The officer states the client is a person of interest in a non-medical investigation but does not provide a warrant, subpoena, or court order. What is the most appropriate action by the PN?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Escalate the request to the nursing supervisor or facility administration to evaluate the legal authorization for disclosure.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to escalate the request to the nursing supervisor or facility administration to evaluate the legal authorization for disclosure.
The correct action involves utilizing the chain of command. While privacy laws protect client information, there are nuanced legal exceptions for law enforcement. It is not within the practical nurse's scope of practice to make complex legal determinations regarding these exceptions. Escalating the matter to a nursing supervisor or privacy officer ensures that the facility complies with all laws while protecting the client's rights.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the request against confidentiality protocols.
The officer is requesting protected health information (PHI) without a subpoena or warrant.
Protecting client confidentiality is a primary nursing responsibility governed by federal laws and facility policies.
2
Evaluate the practical nurse (PN) scope of practice in this scenario.
Determining the legal validity of law enforcement requests and potential exceptions to privacy laws is an administrative function, not a direct care nursing duty.
PNs must practice within their defined scope and utilize the chain of command for complex legal or ethical issues.
3
Select the safest, most appropriate intervention.
The PN should defer to the nursing supervisor or facility privacy officer.
This ensures the facility complies with the law, protects the client's privacy, and keeps the PN within their legal scope of practice.

Key Concept

Confidentiality Exceptions and Chain of Command
Question 2445Question →

A client recovering from a hip arthroplasty begins experiencing severe disorientation during the evening shift and repeatedly attempts to climb out of bed. The client's spouse is highly anxious and asks the nursing staff to apply physical restraints to prevent a fall. Which initial action should the practical nurse (PN) take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station to allow for frequent observation.

Answer

The correct action is to relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station for frequent observation.
The correct answer identifies a primary nursing responsibility: implementing the least restrictive measures possible to ensure client safety. Relocating a disoriented client closer to the nurses' station allows for frequent visual monitoring and quick intervention, which is a standard restraint alternative that must be attempted before physical devices are utilized.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavior and the spouse's request.
The client is at high risk for falls due to acute disorientation, and the spouse is requesting physical restraints.
Understanding the clinical priority (fall prevention) versus the requested intervention (restraints) is essential for safe practice.
2
Evaluate the standard of care regarding physical restraints.
Standards mandate that restraints must always be the intervention of last resort.
Using least restrictive measures first protects client autonomy and reduces the risk of restraint-related injuries.
3
Identify the least restrictive intervention among the choices provided.
Moving the client near the nurses' station provides the necessary supervision without restricting the client's physical movement.
Increased observation is a recognized and effective alternative to physical restraints.

Key Concept

Restraint Alternatives and Least Restrictive Measures
Question 2446Question →

During the afternoon shift, the radiology department calls for a client who requires a STAT computerized tomography (CT) scan of the head. The client began intravenous antibiotic therapy five hours ago for acute meningococcal meningitis. When preparing the client for transport to the imaging department, what is the required infection control intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Have the client don a standard surgical mask prior to exiting the room and alert the receiving technologist about the isolation status.

Answer

Have the client don a standard surgical mask prior to exiting the room and alert the receiving technologist about the isolation status.
Meningococcal meningitis is spread through large respiratory droplets and requires droplet precautions until the client has received 24 hours of effective intravenous antibiotic therapy. Because this client has only been treated for five hours, precautions remain active. When a client on droplet precautions must leave their room, infection control standards dictate that the client wear a standard surgical mask to contain secretions (source control), and the receiving department must be notified in advance so they can prepare appropriate environmental controls.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission route for the specific pathogen.
Meningococcal meningitis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets, requiring droplet precautions.
Determines the necessary category of transmission-based precautions.
2
Evaluate the duration of the antibiotic therapy.
The client has only received antibiotics for five hours, which is less than the required 24-hour threshold.
Droplet precautions must be maintained until the client has completed 24 hours of effective antimicrobial therapy.
3
Determine the protocol for transporting a client on droplet precautions.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask to contain droplets, and the receiving department must be notified.
Source control at the point of origin (the client's respiratory tract) protects individuals in the hallways and the receiving department.

Key Concept

Droplet precautions must be maintained for meningococcal meningitis until 24 hours of antibiotics are completed, and clients must wear a surgical mask during transport for source control.
Question 2447Question →

A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is non-weight-bearing on the right lower extremity and is learning to ascend a flight of stairs using axillary crutches. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for ascending stairs with crutches while non-weight-bearing is: establish a tripod stance, shift weight to the crutches, step up with the unaffected leg, shift weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bring the crutches and affected leg up.
The correct sequence follows the fundamental principle of ascending stairs with an assistive device: 'up with the good.' The client must first establish a stable tripod base and shift weight to the crutches. This allows the unaffected leg to step up securely. Once the strong leg is on the upper step, the client shifts weight onto it, utilizing its strength to lift the body, the crutches, and the affected leg to the new level.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assume a stable tripod stance at the bottom of the stairs.
A secure base of support is established.
Safety must be ensured before initiating any vertical movement.
2
Shift the body weight entirely onto the handgrips of both crutches.
The unaffected leg is unweighted.
Weight must be supported by the upper body to allow the strong leg to move.
3
Advance the unaffected left leg upward onto the next step.
The strong leg is positioned on the higher level.
The unaffected leg must go up first to power the lift.
4
Transfer the body weight from the crutches onto the unaffected left leg.
The crutches and the affected leg are now unweighted.
The strong leg must bear the weight to lift the rest of the body.
5
Bring both crutches and the non-weight-bearing right leg up to the step.
The client successfully completes the ascension of one step.
The crutches and affected leg follow the strong leg to the new level.

Key Concept

Assistive Device Mobility: Ascending Stairs with Crutches
Question 2448Question →

A client hospitalized with pneumonia is scheduled for a thoracentesis. As the practical nurse (PN) brings in the preparatory supplies, the client states, 'I changed my mind. I do not want anyone sticking a needle in my back.' In which order should the PN perform the following actions to advocate for this client? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the preparation, then explore the client's concerns, followed by notifying the healthcare provider and RN, and finally documenting the entire event.
When a client refuses a procedure, the PN's first action is to respect their autonomy by immediately stopping the intervention. Next, the PN should therapeutically explore the reasons for refusal to gather data. This information is then reported to the RN and healthcare provider, who are legally responsible for explaining the medical consequences of the refusal. Finally, objective documentation of the entire event provides a legal record of the client's choice and the healthcare team's actions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the procedure preparation and acknowledge the client's right to decline.
The client's immediate right to refuse care is upheld and they feel respected.
Patient autonomy is the highest priority in advocacy. Continuing preparation after a refusal violates the client's rights.
2
Ask the client to share their specific concerns or reasons for refusing.
The PN gathers relevant data regarding the client's fears or knowledge deficits.
Exploring the reasons for refusal helps identify if the client needs more information or emotional support, which is within the PN's scope of data collection.
3
Notify the healthcare provider and the supervising registered nurse about the refusal.
The medical team is made aware of the situation.
The provider is responsible for explaining the medical risks of refusing the procedure, and the RN must be updated on changes in the client's care plan.
4
Document the client's statement, the refusal, and the notifications in the health record.
A legal and accurate record of the event is created.
Thorough documentation protects both the client and the nursing staff by recording exactly what occurred and who was notified after ensuring client safety.

Key Concept

Client advocacy during treatment refusal involves immediately respecting autonomy, exploring concerns, communicating with the healthcare team, and completing accurate documentation.
Question 2449Question →

A practical nurse (PN) working in a long-term care facility is participating in an annual HIPAA compliance workshop. The educator presents several recent communication events. Match each communication event with the correct determination regarding the disclosure of protected health information (PHI).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Reporting a newly diagnosed case of active tuberculosis to the local county health department.
Leaving a detailed voicemail containing a client's recent laboratory results on a shared home answering machine.
Sharing a client's morning assessment findings with the physical therapist assigned to the client's case.
Confirming a client's room number to a visiting pastor after verifying the client did not opt out of the facility roster.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Reporting tuberculosis matches Mandatory public health disclosure; leaving a detailed voicemail matches Unauthorized privacy violation; sharing findings with the physical therapist matches Treatment and care coordination disclosure; confirming a room number to a pastor matches Authorized directory disclosure.
Understanding confidentiality requires recognizing the legal boundaries of PHI disclosure. Public health reporting of infectious diseases is mandated by law. Direct care coordination among interdisciplinary team members is permitted for safe client care. Facility directories are permitted unless the client opts out. Conversely, leaving detailed clinical information on a medium accessible to others, like a shared answering machine, is a direct privacy violation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the tuberculosis reporting scenario.
Matches 'Mandatory public health disclosure'.
Certain communicable diseases pose a threat to public safety and legally mandate reporting to health departments without requiring prior client consent.
2
Analyze the detailed voicemail scenario.
Matches 'Unauthorized privacy violation'.
Because a home answering machine can be accessed by family or friends, leaving specific clinical data violates the minimum necessary rule. Nurses should only leave their name, facility, and a request to call back.
3
Analyze the physical therapist communication scenario.
Matches 'Treatment and care coordination disclosure'.
The physical therapist is a direct member of the healthcare team. HIPAA permits sharing PHI necessary for the continuity and coordination of care (Treatment, Payment, and Operations).
4
Analyze the visiting pastor scenario.
Matches 'Authorized directory disclosure'.
HIPAA allows facilities to maintain a directory. As long as the client was given the opportunity to opt out and did not, giving room numbers to visiting clergy or guests asking by name is permissible.

Key Concept

Under HIPAA, nurses must distinguish between unauthorized disclosures and legally permitted exceptions such as treatment coordination, facility directories, and mandatory public health reporting.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2450Question →

A client with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a high risk for sacral pressure injuries is confined to bed. The client reports significant shortness of breath if the head of the bed is lowered below 45 degrees. Which action by the practical nurse is the most appropriate to promote skin integrity while maintaining respiratory function?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Use pillows to maintain a 30-degree laterally inclined position while keeping the head of the bed elevated.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to use pillows to maintain a 30-degree laterally inclined position while keeping the head of the bed elevated.
In clients with severe orthopnea, the head of the bed must remain elevated to facilitate diaphragmatic excursion and oxygenation. To prevent shear and pressure on the sacrum while the head is elevated, the nurse should use a 30-degree laterally inclined position. This evidence-based angle effectively offloads the sacrum and greater trochanter without compromising the client's respiratory effort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the competing physiological needs of the client.
The client requires an elevated head of bed (above 45 degrees) for adequate ventilation (ABCs), but this upright position increases shearing forces and pressure on the sacrum.
Airway and breathing are always the highest priority, so the head of the bed cannot be lowered.
2
Evaluate positioning alternatives that accommodate both needs.
A 30-degree lateral turn shifts body weight off the sacrum and greater trochanter without requiring the client to lie flat.
This specific angle prevents pressure on bony prominences while allowing the upper body to remain supported and elevated for lung expansion.
3
Identify and eliminate contraindicated devices or positions.
Ring cushions (which cause ischemia) and leg elevation (which increases venous return and cardiac workload) are eliminated as unsafe.
Evidence-based practice prohibits the use of doughnut cushions, and cardiopulmonary principles contraindicate excessive venous return in severe respiratory compromise.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Positioning and Pressure Injury Prevention
Question 2451Question →

A practical nurse is assigned to a client whose morning laboratory results indicate a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}. The health care provider prescribes a one-time dose of potassium chloride 45 mEq45\text{ mEq} orally. The medication is supplied in a bulk bottle as an oral solution containing 20 mEq/15 mL20\text{ mEq}/15\text{ mL}. How many milliliters of the medication should the nurse pour to administer this dose? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in your answer.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 33.8

Answer

33.8
To calculate the correct administration volume for an oral liquid, use the formula: (Desired Dose/Dose on Hand)×Volume(\text{Desired Dose} / \text{Dose on Hand}) \times \text{Volume}. The desired dose prescribed is 45 mEq45\text{ mEq}. The dose on hand is 20 mEq20\text{ mEq}, which is contained in a volume of 15 mL15\text{ mL}. Plugging these values into the formula yields: (4520)×15=2.25×15=33.75 mL(\frac{45}{20}) \times 15 = 2.25 \times 15 = 33.75\text{ mL}. According to standard clinical rounding rules, because the hundredths digit is a 55, the value is rounded up to the nearest tenth, resulting in 33.8 mL33.8\text{ mL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the prescribed dose (Desired).
The desired dose is 45 mEq45\text{ mEq}.
This is the specific amount of potassium chloride ordered by the health care provider.
2
Identify the concentration of the available medication (Have and Volume).
The medication on hand is 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} per 15 mL15\text{ mL}.
This information is needed to set up the dosage calculation equation.
3
Set up the dosage calculation equation.
45 mEq20 mEq×15 mL=X mL\frac{45\text{ mEq}}{20\text{ mEq}} \times 15\text{ mL} = X\text{ mL}.
The standard formula for liquid medication calculation is (Desired/Have)×Volume(\text{Desired} / \text{Have}) \times \text{Volume}.
4
Perform the calculation and round to the nearest tenth.
2.25×15=33.75 mL2.25 \times 15 = 33.75\text{ mL}, which rounds to 33.8 mL33.8\text{ mL}.
Standard rounding rules state that if the digit to the right of the target decimal place is 5 or higher, round up.

Key Concept

Medication dosage calculation for oral liquids using the desired over have formula
Question 2452Question →

A practical nurse is caring for a newly born infant who has audible mucus secretions. In which order should the nurse use the bulb syringe to clear the newborn's airway? Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for clearing a newborn's airway with a bulb syringe is to compress the bulb first, suction the side of the mouth, release the bulb to draw up secretions, empty the syringe, and finally suction the nares.
When using a bulb syringe to clear a newborn's airway, the nurse must compress the bulb before insertion to avoid pushing secretions deeper. The mouth is suctioned before the nose (remember 'M before N') to prevent the newborn from gasping and aspirating oral secretions if the nares are stimulated first. The tip is placed in the side of the mouth (cheek pocket) to prevent triggering the gag reflex or a vagal response.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Compress the bulb of the syringe completely.
Creates a vacuum potential within the bulb.
Prevents forcing air or existing secretions deeper into the newborn's airway during insertion.
2
Place the tip of the syringe into one side of the newborn's mouth.
Positions the suction device safely in the oral cavity.
Avoids the center of the mouth to prevent triggering the gag reflex, vomiting, or a vagal response (bradycardia).
3
Release the compressed bulb slowly.
Draws up the mucus secretions from the mouth.
The gentle vacuum effectively clears the oral cavity without causing mucosal trauma.
4
Remove the syringe and expel the collected secretions onto a designated tissue.
Empties the bulb syringe.
Prepares the syringe to be used again with maximum suction capacity.
5
Repeat the suctioning procedure for the newborn's nares.
Clears the nasal passages.
The mouth must be cleared first because stimulating the nose can cause the newborn to involuntarily gasp and aspirate any remaining oral secretions.

Key Concept

Newborn Airway Clearance (Bulb Syringe Technique)
Question 2453Question →

An assigned client is recovering from a left hemisphere cerebrovascular accident that caused right-sided hemiplegia. The nurse is planning to move the client from the bed to a wheelchair. To maintain optimal body mechanics and ensure safety, arrange the following steps in the sequence they should be performed.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the wheelchair on the client's strong (left) side and lock it, sit the client up and apply safe footwear, apply the transfer belt, brace the weak (right) knee, have the client push up with their strong arm, and finally pivot toward the strong side to sit.
Safe transfer of a client with hemiplegia requires strict adherence to ergonomic principles. The environment must be prepared first by placing the wheelchair on the unaffected side and locking it. The client is then brought to a seated position with non-skid footwear and a gait belt applied for a secure hold. To protect both parties, the nurse must brace the paralyzed leg to prevent buckling, while encouraging the client to use their strong arm and leg to assist in the lift. Finally, pivoting toward the strong side ensures the client can support the movement before safely sitting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle on the client's left side and lock the wheels.
The equipment is safely secured on the client's strong side.
Prevents the chair from moving and allows the client to pivot toward their unaffected side, utilizing their own strength.
2
Assist the client to sit on the side of the bed and apply non-skid footwear.
The client is seated with stable footing.
Ensures the client is acclimated to an upright position and has traction to prevent slipping.
3
Secure a transfer belt firmly around the client's waist.
The nurse has a secure ergonomic hold point.
Grasping the belt rather than the client's arms or clothing prevents musculoskeletal injury to both the client and the nurse.
4
Stand facing the client with a wide stance and brace the client's right knee with your own knee.
The nurse is ergonomically positioned and the client's weak leg is supported.
Bracing the hemiplegic leg prevents it from collapsing when weight is applied.
5
Ask the client to place their left hand on the mattress and push up to a standing position.
The client assists in bearing their own weight.
Using the client's functional strength minimizes the lifting burden on the nurse.
6
Pivot toward the left side until the back of the client's legs touch the wheelchair seat, then lower them.
The client is safely seated in the wheelchair.
Tactile feedback on the back of the legs confirms proper positioning before lowering, preventing a fall.

Key Concept

Safe Patient Transfer and Ergonomics for Hemiplegia
Question 2454Question →

While caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit, a practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) identifies an acute change in the client's condition. The nurse must escalate these findings to the supervising Registered Nurse (RN) using the SBAR framework. Arrange the nurse's verbal statements in the correct sequence for this communication model.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct communication sequence following the SBAR framework is: Situation (stating the immediate problem), Background (providing medical history), Assessment (reporting current vital signs and data), and Recommendation (requesting immediate evaluation).
The SBAR framework is a standard method for collaborative interprofessional communication. It requires the nurse to first state the immediate Situation to ensure the receiving party understands the urgency. Next, the Background is provided to offer clinical context. This is followed by the Assessment, which includes current data collection and objective findings. Finally, the nurse provides a Recommendation or request for action to address the problem effectively.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the statement that describes the immediate problem.
The statement detailing the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath is placed first.
The 'Situation' (S) provides a concise statement of the immediate problem to grab the listener's attention.
2
Identify the statement that provides historical context.
The statement regarding the admission for deep vein thrombosis and history of coronary artery disease is placed second.
The 'Background' (B) gives the RN the necessary context to understand how the current situation relates to the client's history.
3
Identify the statement that reports the current clinical findings.
The statement reporting the vital signs and client anxiety is placed third.
The 'Assessment' (A) phase involves sharing the objective and subjective data recently collected by the nurse.
4
Identify the statement that requests an action or intervention.
The statement requesting an immediate evaluation and possible rapid response is placed last.
The 'Recommendation' (R) concludes the communication by clearly stating what the nurse needs from the RN.

Key Concept

The SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) framework is a standardized method for interprofessional communication that ensures clear, concise, and focused sharing of critical client information.
Question 2455Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for an adult client with severe cognitive disabilities in a community health clinic. During the physical assessment, the PN observes multiple unexplained, patterned bruises on the client's torso. Arrange the PN's actions in the correct priority order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct priority order is to first ensure the client's immediate safety and assess injuries, then notify the healthcare provider and supervisor, next report the suspected abuse to Adult Protective Services, and finally document the findings and actions in the medical record.
In any clinical scenario involving suspected abuse, the nurse must first utilize the nursing process and prioritization frameworks (such as Maslow's hierarchy) by assessing the client and ensuring immediate safety. Following safety stabilization, the nurse coordinates care by notifying the provider and chain of command. Because the client is a vulnerable adult and abuse is suspected, the practical nurse has a legal mandate to report the findings to the appropriate state protective agency. Finally, the nurse must objectively document all findings, notifications, and reports in the legal health record.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure the client's immediate safety and assess the extent of the physical injuries.
The client is protected from further immediate harm and any acute medical needs are identified.
Basic physiological needs and safety are always the highest priority in nursing care.
2
Communicate the assessment findings to the primary healthcare provider and nursing supervisor.
The healthcare team is activated to provide comprehensive medical care and organizational support.
Following the chain of command ensures collaborative care and adherence to facility protocols.
3
Report the suspected abuse to the state's Adult Protective Services (APS) agency.
A formal investigation by the state is initiated to protect the vulnerable adult.
Nurses are mandatory reporters of suspected abuse; reporting to a supervisor does not relieve the nurse of this independent legal duty.
4
Document the objective description of the bruises and all actions taken in the client's medical record.
An accurate, legal record of the incident and the nurse's interventions is created.
Objective documentation provides evidence of the findings and proves that the nurse fulfilled their legal and ethical obligations.

Key Concept

Mandatory reporting of suspected abuse in vulnerable populations and prioritization of care.
Question 2456Question →

During the morning medication pass at a rehabilitation facility, a practical nurse locates a resident in the busy communal dining room. The resident is due for their routine dose of oral gabapentin. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take before providing the tablet?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request that the resident state their full name and date of birth while checking their wristband.

Answer

The nurse should request that the resident state their full name and date of birth while checking their wristband.
Safe medication administration requires the nurse to personally verify the client's identity using two distinct identifiers, such as full name and date of birth, even in a communal setting. This ensures the right medication is given to the right client while maintaining their safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical setting and the required task.
The nurse needs to administer a scheduled medication to a resident located in a public communal dining room.
Understanding the environment is essential to anticipate privacy concerns and safety risks during medication administration.
2
Apply the fundamental rights of medication administration.
The nurse must verify two distinct patient identifiers (such as name and date of birth) before giving the medication.
Standard safety protocols require strict adherence to the 'right patient' check to prevent medication errors.
3
Evaluate the proposed actions against safety and scope of practice standards.
Directly asking the resident for their identifiers while checking the wristband is the only action that ensures safety without violating privacy or delegating inappropriately.
Visual recognition, delegating to dietary staff, or announcing medical details publicly are unsafe and unethical practices.

Key Concept

Safe Medication Administration and Patient Identification
Question 2457Question →

Following a scheduled total knee replacement, a client with no previous history of cognitive impairment begins shouting at staff and aggressively removing their surgical dressings. The client's partner states that this behavior is just a normal part of getting older. Which intervention should the nurse implement first to ensure client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remain at the bedside to physically redirect the client's hands while assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation.

Answer

The nurse should remain with the client to prevent immediate injury through physical redirection while assessing for acute physiological causes of the sudden behavioral change, such as hypoxia.
Remaining at the bedside ensures immediate safety by physically redirecting the client's hands away from the surgical site, representing a least-restrictive intervention. Simultaneously assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation addresses the potential underlying physiological cause of the sudden confusion, such as hypoxia or an adverse medication reaction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presentation and the partner's statement.
Identify that the sudden onset of agitation and confusion indicates acute delirium, not normal aging.
Recognizing the difference between normal aging and acute delirium is crucial for identifying an underlying medical emergency.
2
Evaluate the safety risks and prioritize interventions.
Determine that the immediate risk is self-injury to the surgical site and intravenous lines.
The priority is always to secure the client's airway, breathing, circulation, and immediate physical safety.
3
Select the safest, most appropriate nursing action.
Choose to stay with the client to provide direct supervision, use least restrictive physical redirection, and assess vital signs.
This avoids premature use of restraints, prevents inappropriate delegation of an unstable client, and initiates the assessment of the root cause.

Key Concept

Prioritization of least restrictive safety measures and assessment in acute delirium.
Question 2458Question →

During morning rounds, a practical nurse (PN) oversees the transfer of a client from the mattress to a customized bedside chair via a full-body mechanical sling lift. The client underwent a left below-the-knee amputation three days prior and exhibits mild, intermittent confusion. To ensure proper ergonomics, equipment safety, and strict adherence to the scope of practice, which actions must the PN perform or enforce? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Widen the base legs of the mechanical lift to their most open and locked position prior to lifting the client.; Raise the bed height to the waist level of the caregivers before manually rolling the client to place the sling.; Instruct the client to keep their arms crossed securely over their chest before the lifting mechanism is engaged.

Answer

The correct actions include widening the base legs of the lift, raising the bed to caregiver waist level, and instructing the client to cross their arms securely over their chest.
Safe use of a mechanical lift mandates widening the base legs to maximize structural stability and prevent catastrophic tipping. Ergonomic principles dictate that caregivers must adjust the bed to waist level to prevent back strain when rolling the client. Furthermore, ensuring the client's arms are crossed over their chest keeps their extremities safely within the sling profile, preventing injury from external hardware.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the equipment safety and ergonomic requirements.
Safe mechanical lift operation requires a wide base of support. Caregivers require a waist-level bed height to utilize proper body mechanics.
These specific actions prevent the equipment from tipping and protect the caregivers from occupational back injuries.
2
Evaluate the client's specific postoperative and cognitive limitations.
The residual limb requires consistent support to prevent complications, and the client's confusion must be managed safely without resorting to unauthorized restraint.
Dependent positioning causes tissue edema and contractures. Using the mechanical lift as a restraint violates patient rights and safety protocols.
3
Determine the legal boundaries regarding the PN's scope of practice.
The PN must enforce the existing transfer plan rather than independently formulating or altering it.
Modifying physical therapy and mobility protocols requires RN-level assessment and complex clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Ergonomics, Mechanical Lift Safety, and Proper Postoperative Positioning
Question 2459Question →

During a shift at a rehabilitation center, a practical nurse is assigned to a client who had a right below-the-knee amputation two days ago. To promote physical mobility and prevent complications, which positioning strategy should the nurse implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client to lie on their stomach for thirty minutes a few times throughout the day.

Answer

The correct action is to assist the client to lie on their stomach (prone position) for thirty minutes a few times throughout the day.
The correct answer involves placing the client in a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times daily. This intervention is crucial because it fully extends the hip joint and stretches the flexor muscles, thereby preventing the development of a hip flexion contracture, which is a significant mobility complication following a lower extremity amputation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeline.
The client is two days (48 hours) post-amputation.
Positioning interventions change significantly after the initial 24-hour period to shift focus from reducing swelling to maintaining mobility.
2
Identify the primary musculoskeletal risk at this stage of recovery.
The major risk is the development of a hip flexion contracture.
Prolonged sitting or elevation keeps the hip flexor muscles shortened and tightened.
3
Select the positioning strategy that directly counteracts this risk.
Assisting the client into a prone position.
Lying on the stomach fully extends the hip joint, effectively stretching the flexor muscles and preventing contracture formation.

Key Concept

Postoperative positioning and contracture prevention following a lower extremity amputation.
Question 2460Question →

A multidisciplinary team in a progressive respiratory care center is collaborating to provide client care. Match each specific clinical intervention to the team member who is most appropriate and legally authorized to perform it based on their defined scope of practice.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Formulating the initial educational plan for a client newly prescribed noninvasive positive pressure ventilation.
Performing routine sterile endotracheal suctioning for a client with a long-standing tracheostomy.
Securing a displaced continuous pulse oximetry sensor onto a client's finger after a bed bath.
Adjusting the prescribed fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) concentration on a mechanical ventilator.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Formulating the initial educational plan is assigned to the Registered Nurse (RN); performing routine sterile suctioning on a stable client is assigned to the Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurse (LPN/VN); securing the pulse oximetry sensor is assigned to Assistive Personnel (AP); and adjusting mechanical ventilator FiO2 is assigned to the Respiratory Therapist (RT).
Safe and effective delegation requires matching the complexity of the task and the stability of the client with the authorized scope of practice of the team member. The RN handles initial planning and education. The LPN/VN manages sterile procedures for stable, chronic clients. The AP handles non-invasive, routine tasks. The RT manages specialized respiratory equipment like mechanical ventilators.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first task: Formulating the initial educational plan.
Identified as requiring the nursing process (assessment and planning).
Initial education and care plan development are exclusively within the RN scope of practice.
2
Analyze the second task: Performing routine sterile endotracheal suctioning for a long-standing tracheostomy.
Identified as a standardized, sterile procedure on a stable client.
The LPN/VN scope includes sterile procedures for clients with predictable outcomes and stable, chronic conditions.
3
Analyze the third task: Securing a displaced continuous pulse oximetry sensor.
Identified as a non-invasive, routine task with minimal risk.
Tasks that do not require nursing judgment or specialized assessment can be safely delegated to Assistive Personnel (AP).
4
Analyze the fourth task: Adjusting the FiO2 concentration on a mechanical ventilator.
Identified as requiring specialized respiratory therapy knowledge and specific provider prescriptions.
Ventilator management and adjustments are specialized collaborative interventions performed by the Respiratory Therapist (RT) or healthcare provider.

Key Concept

Interprofessional collaboration and delegation based on the NCSBN scope of practice guidelines for nursing and allied health professionals.
PreviousPage 123 / 147Next
All practice questions — NCLEX-PN | Examkin