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Question 2661Question →

The nursing team is developing a care plan for a client recovering from a traumatic brain injury. To minimize the risk of dangerous elevations in intracranial pressure (ICP), which specific actions are appropriate to implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Keep the client's cervical spine in a neutral, midline position.; Maintain the mattress backrest at a 30-degree angle.; Administer prescribed docusate sodium daily.

Answer

The correct actions to reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure include keeping the cervical spine in a neutral, midline position, maintaining the mattress backrest at a 30-degree angle, and administering a prescribed stool softener daily.
Keeping the neck in a neutral midline position and raising the backrest to 30 degrees directly facilitates jugular venous drainage, which lowers intracranial volume and pressure. Administering a stool softener prevents constipation and the associated Valsalva maneuver (straining), which is known to cause dangerous spikes in intracranial pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical goal of the scenario.
The primary objective is to prevent spikes in intracranial pressure (ICP) by promoting venous drainage from the brain and minimizing stimuli that increase intrathoracic or intra-abdominal pressure.
Understanding the physiological drivers of increased ICP is necessary to select safe and effective nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate positioning and alignment interventions.
Keeping the neck neutral and raising the backrest to 30 degrees promote optimal jugular venous outflow. Conversely, extreme hip flexion must be avoided because it increases intra-abdominal pressure.
Proper body alignment and gravity assist in reducing cranial blood volume, while poor positioning directly obstructs venous return.
3
Evaluate systemic interventions and environmental stimuli.
Providing stool softeners safely prevents Valsalva maneuvers (straining). Routine suctioning and grouping excessive care activities are contraindicated because they cause sudden or cumulative spikes in ICP.
Minimizing noxious stimuli and preventing straining are critical, foundational steps in ICP risk reduction.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Intracranial Pressure Management
Question 2662Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central venous catheter (CVC). During an intravenous tubing change, the client suddenly grasps their chest and reports severe shortness of breath. The client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly to 85%. Suspecting a central line-associated air embolism, which of the following immediate actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Clamp the central venous catheter immediately.; Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.; Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.

Answer

The correct actions include clamping the central venous catheter, placing the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, and administering 100% oxygen.
An air embolism is a life-threatening complication of parenteral therapies involving central venous access devices. The immediate priorities are to stop further air entry by clamping the line, prevent the existing air from migrating to the pulmonary circulation by placing the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, and treat hypoxia while facilitating nitrogen resorption by applying high-flow oxygen.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the complication based on the clinical presentation.
The combination of a central line tubing change, sudden chest pain, and severe hypoxia strongly indicates a central line-associated air embolism.
Air embolism is a known critical risk when a central venous system is opened to atmospheric pressure.
2
Stop the source of the air leak.
The central venous catheter is immediately clamped.
Clamping the catheter prevents any further atmospheric air from being drawn into the central venous circulation.
3
Reposition the client to trap the air.
The client is placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver).
This positioning utilizes gravity to keep the air embolus suspended in the right atrium or right ventricle, preventing it from occluding the pulmonary circulation.
4
Address the resulting hypoxemia and promote air resorption.
High-flow oxygen (100%) is administered via a non-rebreather mask.
Oxygen treats the immediate hypoxia and creates a nitrogen gradient that accelerates the resorption of the air bubble.

Key Concept

Management of Central Line-Associated Air Embolism
Question 2663Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who returned to the medical unit one hour ago following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client reports a strong urge to void and requests assistance to walk to the bathroom. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?

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Answer: Explain the requirement for strict bedrest and provide a fracture pan while keeping the client in a right side-lying position.

Answer

Explain the requirement for strict bedrest and provide a fracture pan while keeping the client in a right side-lying position.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, clients must remain on strict bedrest in a right side-lying (lateral) position for at least two hours. This position applies direct pressure to the liver capsule at the puncture site, minimizing the risk of hemorrhage. Providing a fracture pan allows the nurse to fulfill the client's basic elimination and comfort needs without compromising this critical therapeutic positioning.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's clinical status and recent procedure.
The client is one hour post-percutaneous liver biopsy.
Understanding the procedure dictates the specific post-operative care and mobility restrictions required.
2
Determine the required positioning for a post-liver biopsy client.
The client must remain on strict bedrest in a right side-lying position.
The right side-lying position applies direct physical pressure against the liver capsule and the puncture site, which is essential to prevent hemorrhage.
3
Evaluate the client's request against the physiological safety requirements.
Walking to the bathroom or using a commode is contraindicated due to strict bedrest and the need for sustained right lateral positioning.
Prioritizing physiological safety (hemorrhage prevention) over the preferred method of elimination is necessary.
4
Select the intervention that addresses the basic care need while maintaining safety.
Using a fracture pan while the client remains on their right side.
A fracture pan can be carefully slipped under the client without requiring them to lift their hips or roll off their right side, safely addressing their comfort and elimination needs.

Key Concept

Post-procedure positioning and basic elimination care
Question 2664Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute delirium who is experiencing severe sensory overload. The client is highly agitated, attempting to climb over the bed rails, and shouting at shadows on the wall while the room's television is blaring. In what order should the nurse prioritize the following interventions? Arrange the actions from first (highest priority) to last (lowest priority).

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first ensure physical safety, second reduce environmental stimuli, third approach the client calmly, fourth provide verbal reorientation, and fifth administer medication as a last resort.
The correct sequence follows the nursing process and prioritization frameworks. The nurse must first ensure immediate physical safety to prevent injury from falling. Next, the nurse addresses the root cause of the immediate distress by eliminating excessive sensory stimuli (turning off the TV, adjusting lights). Once the environment is calm, the nurse can safely approach the client in a non-threatening manner. After establishing a presence, verbal reorientation using simple terms is appropriate. Finally, if these less restrictive, non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective at managing the severe agitation, PRN medication is administered as a last resort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize immediate physical safety.
The client is prevented from falling or sustaining physical injury.
According to prioritization principles, preventing imminent physical harm is always the first action.
2
Modify the environment to reduce sensory overload.
The blaring television is turned off and shadows are minimized.
Sensory overload exacerbates delirium and agitation. Removing noxious stimuli is necessary before effective communication can occur.
3
Initiate non-threatening therapeutic contact.
The nurse approaches calmly and speaks softly.
A calm presence helps de-escalate the situation and models controlled behavior for the agitated client.
4
Reorient the client verbally.
The client receives simple, clear information about reality.
Cognitive impairment requires brief, concrete statements to help anchor the client to their actual surroundings.
5
Utilize pharmacological interventions as a last resort.
Medication is administered only if agitation persists.
The principle of least restrictive interventions dictates that environmental and verbal strategies must be attempted before chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Prioritization of care for a client experiencing acute sensory overload and delirium, utilizing the principles of safety, least restrictive interventions, and environmental modification.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2665Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock and metabolic acidosis who currently has a single peripheral intravenous (IV) line. The client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 8.4%8.4\% sodium bicarbonate at 50 mL/hr50\text{ mL/hr}. The healthcare provider prescribes a new continuous IV infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lbs176\text{ lbs}. The pharmacy dispenses dopamine 400 mg400\text{ mg} diluted in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Based on this prescription, which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Establish a secondary peripheral IV line, set the dopamine infusion pump to 15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}, and monitor the insertion site closely for extravasation.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to establish a secondary peripheral IV line, set the dopamine infusion pump to 15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}, and monitor the insertion site closely for extravasation.
The correct action requires both accurate dosage calculation and knowledge of intravenous compatibility. First, dopamine is a catecholamine, which is rapidly inactivated in alkaline solutions such as sodium bicarbonate. Therefore, connecting dopamine to the Y-site of a sodium bicarbonate infusion is contraindicated; a secondary IV line must be established. Additionally, dopamine is a potent vesicant that can cause severe tissue necrosis if extravasation occurs, so the peripheral site must be monitored meticulously. Second, the correct infusion rate must be calculated: Convert the weight (176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80\text{ kg}), determine the dose (5 mcg×80=400 mcg/min5\text{ mcg} \times 80 = 400\text{ mcg/min}), calculate the concentration (400,000 mcg÷250 mL=1,600 mcg/mL400,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 1,600\text{ mcg/mL}), and determine the hourly rate (400÷1,600=0.25 mL/min×60 min/hr=15 mL/hr400 \div 1,600 = 0.25\text{ mL/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 15\text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the physical and chemical compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Dopamine and sodium bicarbonate are chemically incompatible.
Dopamine is a catecholamine that undergoes chemical breakdown when exposed to highly alkaline solutions (like sodium bicarbonate). Therefore, a separate IV line is mandatory.
2
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80\text{ kg}
Critical care continuous infusions are dosed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
3
Calculate the required dose per minute.
5 mcg/kg/min×80 kg=400 mcg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 80\text{ kg} = 400\text{ mcg/min}
Determines the total amount of medication the client requires every minute to achieve the therapeutic effect.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied dopamine solution.
400 mg=400,000 mcg400\text{ mg} = 400,000\text{ mcg}. Concentration = 400,000 mcg÷250 mL=1,600 mcg/mL400,000\text{ mcg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 1,600\text{ mcg/mL}
Standardizes the units (mcg to mcg) to prepare for volume calculation.
5
Calculate the final IV pump flow rate in mL/hr.
Rate = (400 mcg/min÷1,600 mcg/mL)×60 min/hr=15 mL/hr(400\text{ mcg/min} \div 1,600\text{ mcg/mL}) \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 15\text{ mL/hr}
IV infusion pumps must be programmed in milliliters per hour.

Key Concept

Chemical incompatibility of catecholamines with alkaline solutions and complex weight-based intravenous medication calculations.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 2666Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client with end-stage heart failure who has recently transitioned to comfort measures only. The client is minimally responsive, exhibits Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and has mottling of the lower extremities. The client's family is at the bedside and expresses distress about the breathing pattern. Which nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to promote respiratory comfort.; Administer prescribed sublingual morphine to alleviate signs of respiratory distress.; Educate the family that these specific breathing and skin changes are an expected part of the dying process.

Answer

The appropriate nursing actions include elevating the head of the bed, administering prescribed sublingual morphine, and educating the family about the expected physiological changes of dying.
Appropriate end-of-life care focuses on maximizing the client's comfort and supporting the family system. Elevating the head of the bed mechanically eases breathing effort. Morphine is the pharmacological gold standard for managing dyspnea in palliative care. Furthermore, educating the family about normal signs of impending death (such as Cheyne-Stokes breathing and mottling) reduces fear and provides necessary psychosocial support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is in the active phase of dying, exhibiting expected signs such as Cheyne-Stokes respirations and peripheral mottling.
Identifying the stage of the dying process guides the selection of appropriate palliative interventions.
2
Evaluate the needs of both the client and the family.
The client requires physical comfort measures for dyspnea, and the family requires therapeutic communication and education regarding the dying process.
Holistic end-of-life care addresses both the physical comfort of the client and the psychosocial needs of the grieving family.
3
Select interventions that align with comfort measures only (CMO) and the registered nurse's scope of practice.
Elevating the head of the bed, giving morphine for dyspnea, and educating the family are appropriate. Delegating assessment to a UAP and using non-therapeutic 'why' questions are inappropriate.
Nursing actions must provide physical comfort, maintain safety through proper delegation, and utilize therapeutic communication.

Key Concept

Prioritizing palliative comfort measures and providing psychosocial support and education to the family during the active phase of dying.
Question 2667Question →

A clinic nurse is preparing to conduct an intimate partner violence (IPV) screening for a young adult client who arrived at the healthcare facility with their spouse. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence to safely and effectively perform the screening.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Ensure privacy, explain universal screening, ask direct questions, validate disclosure, and evaluate immediate safety.
The priority in IPV screening is client safety, meaning the nurse must first establish a secure, private environment away from any accompanying individuals. Next, introducing the screening as a universal, routine practice reduces stigma and defensiveness. The nurse then asks direct, objective screening questions. If the client discloses abuse, the immediate psychosocial priority is to therapeutically validate their experience. Finally, the nurse must assess for immediate danger and lethality to determine if an urgent safety plan is needed before the client leaves the facility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure privacy
The client is separated from their spouse in a secure room.
Screening must never occur with a partner present due to the high risk of retaliation and compromised confidentiality.
2
Introduce universal screening
The nurse explains that IPV screening is routinely done for all clients.
Normalizing the assessment prevents the client from feeling singled out and reduces defensiveness.
3
Conduct the screening assessment
Direct, non-judgmental questions about abuse are asked.
Clear and specific questions are necessary to accurately identify experiences of violence.
4
Validate the client's disclosure
The nurse provides an affirming statement that the abuse is not the client's fault.
Therapeutic validation builds trust and provides crucial emotional support immediately following disclosure.
5
Assess immediate safety
The nurse evaluates the risk for imminent lethality or harm.
Once the client's experience is validated, determining immediate danger dictates the urgency and type of safety planning required before the client leaves.

Key Concept

Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) Screening Sequence
Question 2668Question →

While preparing a specimen for transport, an outpatient clinic nurse accidentally drops a glass sputum collection container from a client with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis. The jar shatters, spilling the specimen across the exam room floor. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Instruct all individuals to immediately vacate the exam room and pull the door closed behind them.

Answer

Instruct all individuals to immediately vacate the exam room and pull the door closed behind them.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne aerosolized droplets. When a container of infectious sputum shatters, it forcefully generates a high concentration of infectious aerosols. The absolute first priority is to evacuate the immediate area, close the door to prevent aerosols from spreading to adjacent areas, and wait a designated period for aerosols to settle or be cleared by ventilation systems before re-entering with appropriate airborne personal protective equipment (e.g., N95 respirator or PAPR) to clean the spill.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and its transmission route.
The client has suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis, which is transmitted via the airborne route.
Pathogen characteristics dictate the appropriate isolation and spill management protocols.
2
Analyze the physical event and immediate risks.
A glass container shattering on a hard surface generates infectious aerosols, creating an immediate inhalation risk in the room.
Recognizing aerosol generation is critical for prioritizing respiratory safety over environmental cleanup.
3
Determine the highest priority action based on safety principles.
The immediate priority is to clear the room, close the door to contain the aerosols, and allow time for the air to clear before re-entering with an N95 respirator to manage the spill.
Protecting human life and preventing exposure always supersedes immediate physical containment of the biological material.

Key Concept

Management of Airborne Biological Spills
Question 2669Question →

A nurse is preparing to change a two-piece ostomy appliance for a client with a newly established descending colostomy. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence for changing an ostomy appliance is: removing the old appliance, cleaning and drying the skin, measuring the stoma, cutting the barrier to the appropriate size, and applying the new barrier and pouch.
The procedure for changing an ostomy pouch requires a logical progression focused on skin integrity and maintaining a proper seal. The nurse must first gently remove the old equipment by pushing the skin away from the adhesive to prevent epidermal stripping. Next, the skin is cleaned with warm water (avoiding soaps that leave residue) and thoroughly dried. Because the stoma size fluctuates, especially in the postoperative period, the nurse must measure it accurately after cleaning and drying the area. The wafer is then carefully cut approximately 1/8 inch larger than the stoma to ensure it does not compress the stomal tissue while still protecting the surrounding skin from effluent. Finally, the newly cut barrier and pouch are applied.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Remove the soiled appliance.
Exposes the stoma and peristomal skin.
Necessary to begin the care process while minimizing skin trauma.
2
Cleanse and dry the area.
Removes effluent and prepares a clean, dry surface.
Feces can cause severe skin breakdown, and moisture prevents the new adhesive from sticking properly.
3
Measure the stoma.
Provides the exact current dimensions of the stoma.
Stoma size changes over time, especially postoperatively, requiring accurate measurement during each change.
4
Cut the skin barrier 1/8 inch larger than the stoma.
Creates a customized opening in the wafer.
A correct fit prevents stoma strangulation and protects the surrounding skin from corrosive stool.
5
Apply the new barrier and pouch.
Secures the appliance to the client.
Completes the procedure, restoring the closed system for effluent collection.

Key Concept

Ostomy Care and Peristomal Skin Management
Question 2670Question →

A nurse in an outpatient clinic is speaking with the parents of a 4-year-old client who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The parents report that the child becomes extremely distressed before each insulin injection, stating that the shots are a punishment for being 'bad'. Which of the following actions should the nurse advise the parents to take?

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Answer: Consistently reassure the child that the injections are medicine to help the body and are not a consequence of any behavior.

Answer

Consistently reassure the child that the injections are medicine to help the body and are not a consequence of any behavior.
The correct answer addresses the specific developmental needs of a 4-year-old child. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, preschoolers (ages 2 to 7) are in the preoperational stage, which is characterized by egocentrism and magical thinking. They frequently believe that their thoughts or misbehaviors can magically cause external events, such as becoming sick or needing painful medical procedures. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide consistent, simple reassurance that the medical treatment is required to keep their body healthy and is absolutely not a punishment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's age and cognitive developmental stage.
The client is 4 years old, placing them in Piaget's preoperational stage.
Identifying the developmental stage determines what cognitive concepts the child can understand.
2
Evaluate the child's behavior based on expected developmental milestones.
Believing that an illness or painful procedure is a punishment is a manifestation of magical thinking and egocentrism, which are normal for a preschooler.
Recognizing this behavior as normal prevents the implementation of inappropriate psychological interventions.
3
Select an intervention that therapeutically addresses the child's developmental fears.
Providing simple, consistent reassurance that the injections are meant to help, not punish, directly alleviates the fear caused by magical thinking.
Nursing guidance must be tailored to the child's specific developmental capacity to comprehend cause and effect.

Key Concept

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, preschoolers exhibit magical thinking and often view illness or medical procedures as a punishment for their thoughts or actions. Nursing care must focus on simple reassurance to alleviate these developmentally expected fears.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2671Question →

A community health nurse is establishing a health promotion and disease prevention plan for a 70-year-old client who has recently relocated to the area. The client reports a sedentary lifestyle, new-onset occasional urinary incontinence, and has a 30-pack-year smoking history, though they quit 5 years ago. Which nursing action demonstrates the correct application of a secondary prevention strategy for this client?

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Answer: Facilitating a referral for an annual low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan to screen for lung cancer.

Answer

Facilitating a referral for an annual low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan to screen for lung cancer.
Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection and screening of asymptomatic individuals who are at high risk for a specific disease. According to current preventive health guidelines, adults aged 50 to 80 years with a 20-pack-year or more smoking history who currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years require annual screening for lung cancer with a low-dose computed tomography (LDCT) scan. Because this client is 70 years old with a 30-pack-year history and quit 5 years ago, facilitating this screening perfectly aligns with the definition of secondary prevention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and history.
The client is an older adult with a significant smoking history (30-pack-years, quit 5 years ago) and a new pathological symptom (urinary incontinence).
Identifying risk factors and current symptoms is required to determine appropriate, individualized interventions.
2
Define the goal of the nursing action based on the question stem.
The stem specifically asks for a 'secondary prevention' strategy.
Understanding the levels of prevention (primary, secondary, tertiary) is essential for categorizing nursing interventions accurately.
3
Evaluate each option against the definition of secondary prevention.
LDCT screening for lung cancer is early detection (secondary). Vaccinations are primary. Bladder training is tertiary. Dismissing incontinence is an assessment error.
Secondary prevention focuses exclusively on screening asymptomatic, high-risk individuals for early detection and prompt treatment of disease.

Key Concept

Levels of Disease Prevention and Preventive Health Screening
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2672Question →

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast. Which finding is the most critical to report to the healthcare provider prior to the procedure?

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Answer: The client takes metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Answer

The client takes metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
IV iodinated contrast can cause acute kidney injury. If the kidneys are compromised by the contrast, metformin can accumulate in the body, leading to a life-threatening condition called lactic acidosis. Therefore, recognizing metformin use is the highest priority for risk reduction, and the medication must be temporarily discontinued.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the planned procedure and its physiological risks.
The client is scheduled for a CT scan with IV iodinated contrast, which carries a known risk of acute kidney injury.
Identifying the primary physiological risk of the procedure helps determine which assessment findings are most relevant.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding for its potential to increase procedural risk.
Metformin interacts with IV contrast to cause lactic acidosis. The ABG is normal, a pollen allergy is not a contrast risk, and an incorrect assessment sequence is not a physiological threat.
Systematically ruling out safe or low-priority findings isolates the critical safety hazard.
3
Select the finding that requires immediate clinical intervention.
The use of metformin is the finding that must be reported to the provider immediately.
The provider must order metformin to be held before and after the scan to prevent life-threatening complications.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Diagnostic Testing Preparations
Question 2673Question →

An older adult client with advanced Parkinson's disease and acute pancreatitis is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a nasojejunal tube. The client suddenly becomes highly restless, pulls at the bedsheets, and attempts to climb over the side rails. Which nursing action demonstrates the most appropriate approach to this client's basic care and comfort?

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Answer: Keep the head of the bed elevated between 30 and 45 degrees, camouflage the enteral tubing under the client's gown, and assist the client with a urinal or bedpan.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to keep the head of the bed elevated between 30 and 45 degrees, camouflage the tubing under the gown, and assist the client with toileting.
Clients receiving continuous enteral nutrition are at a high risk for aspiration and must remain with the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees at all times, even during comfort care. Furthermore, acute restlessness in older adults is frequently an indicator of physiological distress, such as a full bladder or pain, rather than simple confusion. By camouflaging the tube under the gown, the nurse utilizes a least-restrictive safety measure to prevent dislodgement, while maintaining safe respiratory positioning and actively addressing a highly probable underlying cause of the agitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presentation and medical history.
The client is an older adult with Parkinson's receiving continuous enteral feeding who is exhibiting acute, sudden restlessness.
Identifying acute changes helps differentiate between baseline cognitive deficits and acute physiological distress (delirium).
2
Evaluate the safety risks associated with the client's current treatments.
Continuous nasojejunal feeding carries a high risk of aspiration if the client is positioned incorrectly. The restlessness creates a secondary risk of tube dislodgement.
Nursing priorities must center on airway protection (preventing aspiration) and maintaining vital medical therapies.
3
Identify the safest and least restrictive interventions for agitation.
Restraints are contraindicated as a first step. Camouflaging the tube hides it from the client's line of sight, reducing pulling behaviors without restricting movement.
Standards of care mandate utilizing the least restrictive alternative to maintain client safety and comfort.
4
Address the most likely root causes of the sudden restlessness.
Acute agitation is often triggered by basic unmet needs such as a full bladder, unmanaged pain, or hypoxia. Assisting with a urinal addresses a primary physiological trigger.
Treating the underlying cause of delirium is more effective and safer than sedating or restraining the client.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort for Enteral Nutrition and Agitation
Question 2674Question →

A nurse is preparing to safely transfer a client who has generalized weakness from the bed to a wheelchair. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Position and lock the wheelchair, assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed, apply the transfer belt, assist the client to stand, and finally pivot to the wheelchair.
A safe bed-to-chair transfer prioritizes client stability and proper nursing body mechanics. First, the environment must be prepared by positioning the wheelchair on the client's strong side and locking the brakes to prevent movement. Next, the client is assisted to a dangling position to prevent orthostatic hypotension. The transfer belt is then applied while the client is seated to ensure a snug fit. Once secured, the nurse assists the client to stand. Finally, the nurse and client pivot together, allowing the client to reach for the wheelchair armrests and safely sit.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair on the strong side and lock the brakes.
The equipment is safely prepared.
Ensures the wheelchair will not move during the transfer, preventing falls.
2
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed.
The client is seated upright.
Allows the client to stabilize and prevents injury from orthostatic hypotension (dizziness).
3
Apply the transfer belt securely.
The nurse has a safe grasping point.
Provides stability and allows the nurse to support the client's center of gravity without pulling on their arms.
4
Assist the client to a standing position.
The client is safely standing.
Transitions the client to a weight-bearing position using the support of the transfer belt.
5
Pivot and guide the client into the wheelchair.
The client is safely seated in the wheelchair.
Completes the transfer with minimal twisting of the nurse's spine and safe seating for the client.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer and Mobility
Question 2675Question →

A client has recently passed away on a medical-surgical unit. The provider has pronounced the death and confirmed that an autopsy is not indicated. The family is currently waiting in the lounge to view the body. Arrange the following post-mortem care actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Position a pillow beneath the head, close the eyes and mouth, remove intravenous lines and tubes, wash the body and apply a clean gown, and finally remove unnecessary medical equipment from the room.
Post-mortem care is performed systematically to maintain the dignity of the deceased and support the grieving family. The immediate physical priority is preventing facial discoloration by elevating the head, followed quickly by closing the eyes before rigor mortis occurs. Next, removing medical devices (when autopsy is not required) and bathing the body restores a natural appearance. Finally, modifying the environment completes the preparation before the family enters.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prevent post-mortem physical changes.
The nurse positions a pillow under the head and raises the bed slightly.
Doing this immediately prevents blood from pooling in the face (livor mortis), preventing permanent discoloration.
2
Ensure a natural facial appearance.
The nurse gently closes the eyes and mouth.
This must be completed quickly before rigor mortis begins, as stiffening will make it difficult to adjust the facial features later.
3
Prepare the body physically for the family.
The nurse removes all medical lines, tubes, and catheters.
Since the provider confirmed no autopsy is needed, invasive devices are removed so the client looks more natural and less institutionalized.
4
Perform hygienic care.
The nurse washes the body and dresses the client in a clean gown.
Cleansing removes any bodily fluids and the fresh gown restores the client's dignity prior to the viewing.
5
Optimize the therapeutic environment.
The nurse removes excess medical supplies and equipment.
A clean, decluttered room creates a peaceful atmosphere that supports the grieving family during their final visitation.

Key Concept

Post-Mortem Care Sequence
Question 2676Question →

The nursing team is planning care for four infants recently admitted to the newborn nursery. Which infant should the registered nurse assess FIRST?

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Answer: An infant delivered 4 hours ago via vacuum extraction who presents with an expanding, boggy scalp mass crossing the cranial sutures and a resting heart rate of 178/min.

Answer

The infant delivered via vacuum extraction with an expanding, boggy scalp mass and a heart rate of 178/min requires immediate assessment.
The infant with an expanding, boggy scalp mass crossing the cranial sutures and a resting heart rate of 178/min is exhibiting signs of a subgaleal hemorrhage and early hypovolemic shock. The subgaleal space is large and can accommodate a massive amount of blood, potentially leading to rapid exsanguination. Tachycardia (normal newborn heart rate is 110-160/min) is an early compensatory mechanism for hypovolemia. This represents an immediate, life-threatening circulation (ABC) emergency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of the infant with the expanding scalp mass.
The combination of vacuum extraction, an expanding boggy mass crossing sutures, and tachycardia indicates a subgaleal hemorrhage and early hypovolemic shock.
Subgaleal hemorrhage involves bleeding into the loose areolar tissue space, which can hold a massive portion of the infant's blood volume, leading to exsanguination.
2
Evaluate the large-for-gestational-age infant with tremors.
A glucose level of 38 mg/dL (2.1 mmol/L) with tremors indicates symptomatic hypoglycemia, requiring prompt feeding or intravenous dextrose.
Metabolic issues are urgent but follow airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) problems in the prioritization framework.
3
Assess the remaining two infants.
The infant with prolonged rupture of membranes has normal vital signs and expected acrocyanosis. The infant with a firm, localized swelling has a cephalohematoma.
Neither of these conditions requires immediate, life-saving intervention. Cephalohematomas are contained and resolve spontaneously.
4
Apply prioritization principles (ABCs and Maslow's hierarchy of needs).
The infant with suspected subgaleal hemorrhage and shock takes the highest priority.
Circulatory collapse is an immediate, active threat to the infant's life.

Key Concept

Prioritization of neonatal complications and recognition of subgaleal hemorrhage
Question 2677Question →

While completing evening rounds on a behavioral health unit, a nurse observes a client clenching their fists, breathing rapidly, and shouting obscenities at another staff member. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing acute agitation. In what order should the nurse implement the following interventions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first secure the environment by removing bystanders, then attempt verbal de-escalation, followed by offering voluntary oral medication, administering IM medication if aggression escalates, and finally applying physical restraints as an absolute last resort.
The management of an agitated client follows a strict hierarchy prioritizing safety and utilizing the least restrictive interventions first. Ensuring the safety of bystanders is the immediate priority. Once the area is clear, verbal de-escalation is the least restrictive direct approach. If this fails, offering voluntary oral medication gives the client a chance to retain autonomy and participate in their care. Involuntary intramuscular medication (chemical restraint) is used only if the client continues to pose a severe threat. Physical restraints are the most restrictive option and are reserved as a final measure when all other alternatives have been exhausted and imminent harm is highly likely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure environmental safety
Remove bystanders from the area.
Protects others from potential harm and reduces the audience, which can sometimes fuel aggressive behavior.
2
Attempt verbal de-escalation
Speak calmly from a safe distance.
Provides the least restrictive method to help the client regain self-control without utilizing physical or chemical interventions.
3
Offer voluntary pharmacological support
Provide PRN oral medication.
Offers a less restrictive medical intervention if verbal methods are insufficient, preserving client autonomy.
4
Administer chemical restraint
Give IM medication.
Manages imminent danger when the client refuses oral medication and continues to escalate.
5
Apply physical restraints
Use mechanical restraints.
Serves as the absolute last resort for preventing immediate physical harm to the client or staff when all other options have been exhausted.

Key Concept

Hierarchy of Least Restrictive Behavioral Interventions
Question 2678Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of intravenous (IV) phenytoin to a client who is experiencing active seizure activity. The client has a single peripheral IV line with a continuous infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Stop the primary infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.

Answer

The nurse should pause the primary 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W) infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after giving the phenytoin to prevent crystallization.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will rapidly precipitate if mixed. To safely administer the medication through an existing IV line infusing 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W), the nurse must pause the primary infusion and flush the line thoroughly with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) before and after the IV push.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (phenytoin) with the continuous IV fluid (D5W).
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions.
Mixing phenytoin with D5W causes the medication to immediately precipitate and form microcrystals in the IV tubing.
2
Determine the safest and most efficient method to administer the medication using the existing IV access.
The nurse must stop the primary D5W infusion and flush the line thoroughly with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
Flushing the line with normal saline clears the tubing of dextrose, creating a compatible environment for the phenytoin IV push without unnecessarily delaying treatment to start a new IV line.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2679Question →

A client who recently experienced sudden and total vision loss following a traumatic injury is admitted to a surgical step-down unit. During the first night, the client becomes acutely agitated, attempts to remove the intravenous (IV) catheter, and shouts, "Who is in here? What are you doing to me?" Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Speak to the client by name while entering the room, announce the nurse's presence, and gently touch the client's hand.

Answer

The priority action is to approach the client calmly, announce one's presence by speaking the client's name, and use a gentle touch.
The correct action directly addresses the client's acute sensory loss and resulting disorientation. By speaking the client's name clearly upon entering, stating their presence, and using gentle tactile stimulation, the nurse replaces the missing visual input with meaningful auditory and tactile stimuli. This helps reorient the client, reduces fear, and de-escalates the agitation without using restrictive measures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavior and clinical history.
The client has sudden, complete vision loss and is exhibiting signs of acute fear, disorientation, and sensory deprivation in an unfamiliar environment.
Understanding that the agitation stems from a lack of visual input and fear of the unknown guides the choice of intervention.
2
Evaluate the available interventions based on the nursing process and safety principles.
Restraints are a last resort. Delegating to a technician bypasses RN assessment. Asking 'why' is non-therapeutic. Providing orienting stimuli is safe and addresses the root cause.
The least restrictive, most direct therapeutic intervention must be prioritized for a client experiencing sensory alterations.
3
Select the action that provides appropriate sensory input.
Using auditory (speaking name, announcing presence) and tactile (gentle touch) stimuli effectively compensates for the lack of visual stimuli.
This establishes trust, grounds the client in reality, and mitigates the panic caused by sensory deprivation.

Key Concept

Nursing management of acute sensory deprivation and perceptual alterations requires providing compensatory, orienting stimuli (auditory and tactile) to maintain safety and reduce severe anxiety.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2680Question →

A nurse is preparing to enter the room of a client who has disseminated herpes zoster and is on airborne and contact precautions. In what order should the nurse don the required personal protective equipment (PPE)? Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence for donning PPE is: perform hand hygiene, put on the isolation gown, put on the N95 respirator, put on the face shield or goggles, and finally put on the gloves.
According to standard infection control guidelines, the sequence for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) begins with hand hygiene to prevent contaminating the clean equipment. Next, the isolation gown is put on to cover the torso and arms, and it is tied securely. Following the gown, the N95 respirator is placed and seal-checked to protect against airborne pathogens. Eye protection (goggles or a face shield) is then applied over the respirator straps. Finally, clean gloves are donned last, ensuring they extend over the cuffs of the gown to provide a continuous, secure barrier against contact transmission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub or soap and water.
Hands are clean and ready to handle sterile or clean PPE.
Prevents the transfer of pathogens to the clean PPE during the donning process.
2
Put on a clean isolation gown and fasten the ties securely at the neck and waist.
The torso, arms, and clothing are covered and protected.
The gown provides the largest surface area of protection and must be secured before facial PPE.
3
Put on a fit-tested N95 respirator and perform a user seal check.
The respiratory tract is protected from airborne particles.
The respirator is secured before eye protection to ensure the straps lie flat on the head and the seal is tight.
4
Put on a face shield or goggles.
The mucous membranes of the eyes are protected.
Eye protection is placed over the respirator to ensure it does not break the seal of the N95.
5
Put on clean gloves, ensuring they extend over the cuffs of the isolation gown.
The hands and wrists are completely covered.
Gloves must be placed last so they can wrap over the gown cuffs, eliminating exposed skin at the wrists.

Key Concept

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Donning Sequence
Estimated Time:1m 0s
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