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Question 1Question →

A triage nurse in the emergency department is evaluating four clients, each with a history of substance use. Based on the presenting clinical findings, which client should the nurse identify as the highest priority for immediate medical intervention?

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Answer: A client who abruptly stopped taking high-dose alprazolam 48 hours ago, presenting with worsening muscle tremors, marked agitation, and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute.

Answer

The client who abruptly stopped taking high-dose alprazolam 48 hours ago and is experiencing severe muscle tremors, agitation, and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute.
The correct answer identifies the client in acute benzodiazepine withdrawal. Abrupt cessation of central nervous system depressants like alprazolam can lead to severe autonomic hyperactivity, seizures, and death. The presence of worsening tremors and marked tachycardia (132 bpm) indicates that this client is highly unstable and requires immediate medical intervention to prevent status epilepticus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each client's presentation using Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Identified which client has the most acute, life-threatening physiological instability.
Prioritization in triage requires treating the most unstable client first.
2
Evaluate the physiological severity of each substance-related emergency.
The alprazolam withdrawal client is at imminent risk for seizures and cardiovascular collapse. The heroin withdrawal client is stable despite severe discomfort. The alcohol withdrawal client is in the early, mild stages. The cocaine intoxicated client is hyperactive but physiologically stable.
Different substances carry drastically different physiological risks during intoxication and withdrawal.
3
Select the client requiring immediate life-saving intervention.
The client in severe benzodiazepine withdrawal is identified as the highest priority.
Preventing status epilepticus and autonomic collapse takes precedence over managing discomfort or mild psychiatric symptoms.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Substance Use Emergencies
Question 2Question →

A critical care nurse is managing a client diagnosed with severe diabetic ketoacidosis. The client is currently receiving intravenous 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride and a continuous regular insulin infusion. Clinical assessment reveals lethargy and a regular, deep respiratory rate of 3232 breaths per minute. The most recent laboratory results indicate:

• Arterial blood gas: pH 7.267.26, PaCO 2_2 2929 mmHg, HCO 3−_3^- 1212 mEq/L, PaO 2_2 9494 mmHg
• Serum glucose: 242242 mg/dL (13.413.4 mmol/L)
• Serum potassium: 3.13.1 mEq/L (3.13.1 mmol/L)

Which intervention should the nurse perform first to mitigate the risk of a fatal physiological complication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Suspend the continuous regular insulin infusion immediately

Answer

Suspend the continuous regular insulin infusion immediately.
In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), total body potassium is severely depleted despite potentially normal initial serum levels. Insulin therapy shifts potassium from the extracellular space into the intracellular space, which can rapidly precipitate severe, life-threatening hypokalemia. Evidence-based protocols mandate that if the serum potassium falls below 3.33.3 mEq/L, the insulin infusion must be suspended immediately, and aggressive potassium replacement must be initiated to prevent fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Addressing this immediate threat to life constitutes the highest priority in risk reduction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current potassium level.
The serum potassium is 3.13.1 mEq/L, which is critically low (below the 3.33.3 mEq/L threshold).
Identifying life-threatening electrolyte imbalances is the primary step in physiological risk reduction.
2
Evaluate the physiological effect of the current medical interventions.
The continuous insulin infusion is actively shifting the already depleted potassium from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
Understanding pharmacodynamics is required to anticipate iatrogenic complications during treatment.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on risk reduction protocols.
The insulin infusion must be stopped immediately until the potassium level is corrected.
Continuing insulin will worsen the hypokalemia, inevitably leading to fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. This preventative action takes strict priority over resolving the hyperglycemia.

Key Concept

In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin therapy must be immediately withheld if the serum potassium drops below 3.33.3 mEq/L to prevent fatal hypokalemia-induced cardiac arrhythmias.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3Question →

A client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in water. The healthcare provider orders a scheduled dose of intravenous levofloxacin. What is the priority nursing action before attaching the secondary medication to the existing intravenous line?

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Answer: Confirm that the prescribed antibiotic can be safely mixed with the primary intravenous fluid

Answer

Confirm that the prescribed antibiotic can be safely mixed with the primary intravenous fluid
Before administering a secondary intravenous medication, the most critical safety step is to verify that the medication is compatible with the primary continuous infusion. Mixing incompatible medications or fluids can lead to chemical degradation, precipitate formation, and life-threatening complications such as emboli.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical task.
The nurse needs to administer an intermittent secondary intravenous medication into a continuous primary line.
Understanding the type of administration dictates the required safety checks.
2
Apply fundamental parenteral safety principles.
The nurse determines that chemical compatibility must be established before two fluids mix in the same tubing.
Mixing incompatible fluids or medications can cause chemical reactions, crystallization, and severe client harm, making verification the highest priority.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Question 4Question →

A client arrives at the emergency department after sustaining a large laceration with significant blood loss. The bleeding is now controlled. Which vital sign change represents the body's earliest physiological adaptation to maintain adequate tissue perfusion?

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Answer: An increase in heart rate

Answer

An increase in heart rate
In the early stages of volume loss, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. This leads to an increased heart rate (tachycardia) as the body's primary, initial physiological adaptation to maintain cardiac output and ensure vital organs remain perfused.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client has experienced significant blood loss, putting them at risk for hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the primary physiological threat helps anticipate the body's response.
2
Recall the stages of shock and compensatory mechanisms
In the early (compensatory) stage of shock, the sympathetic nervous system activates to preserve cardiac output.
Understanding the timeline of physiological changes is necessary to identify the earliest sign.
3
Evaluate the options against expected early physiological responses
Tachycardia is the earliest response, whereas hypotension is a late sign, pulse pressure narrows, and respiratory rate increases.
This confirms which vital sign change accurately reflects the initial adaptation.

Key Concept

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock
Question 5Question →

An ambulatory care nurse is monitoring a 61-year-old client who underwent a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver one hour ago. The client is currently lying supine with the head of the bed elevated and reports a new onset of dull right shoulder ache. The current heart rate is 112 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg. Pre-procedure baseline vital signs were a heart rate of 78 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Turn the client onto the right side and place a folded towel under the puncture site.

Answer

The priority action is to turn the client onto the right side and place a folded towel under the puncture site to apply pressure and stop potential bleeding.
The client is exhibiting early signs of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, hypotension) and referred right shoulder pain, which suggests internal bleeding irritating the diaphragm. Turning the client onto the right side applies direct pressure to the liver capsule at the puncture site, which is the immediate priority to tamponade the bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital sign trends.
The client has developed a new right shoulder ache, a heart rate increase from 78 to 112 bpm, and a blood pressure decrease from 128/76 to 98/62 mm Hg.
Identifying deviations from baseline is necessary to detect post-procedure complications early.
2
Correlate the assessment findings with potential complications of a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The liver is a highly vascular organ. Tachycardia, hypotension, and referred right shoulder pain (phrenic nerve irritation from blood) strongly indicate internal hemorrhage.
Recognizing the pathophysiology of referred pain and early hemorrhagic shock guides the choice of intervention.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention to mitigate the identified risk.
The immediate action is to apply physical pressure to the biopsy site by positioning the client in the right lateral decubitus position.
Direct pressure on the liver capsule tamponades the bleeding, stabilizing the client before notifying the healthcare provider.

Key Concept

Mitigating hemorrhage risk following a percutaneous liver biopsy
Question 6Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment for severe sepsis secondary to a perforated bowel. Upon assessment, the client is restless with cold, clammy skin. Vital signs include a heart rate of 134 beats/min, a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min with deep, rapid inspirations. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.23, PaCO2 27 mm Hg, PaO2 84 mm Hg, and HCO3- 12 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which conclusion correctly directs the nurse's immediate priorities?

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Answer: The deep, rapid breathing is a necessary compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis caused by tissue hypoperfusion; the nurse should prioritize improving systemic circulation with prescribed vasopressors or fluid volume.

Answer

The correct answer accurately identifies the acid-base imbalance as metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, recognizing that the priority is to treat the underlying hypoperfusion without suppressing the compensatory breathing.
The client is in septic shock, leading to cellular hypoxia and lactic acid production, which manifests as metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-). The deep, rapid breathing is a vital physiological adaptation (respiratory compensation) to exhale CO2 and prevent a further drop in pH. The priority is to treat the underlying hypoperfusion to stop lactic acid production, typically by administering prescribed IV fluids or vasopressors to increase the mean arterial pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH is 7.23 (acidosis). The HCO3- is 12 mEq/L (primary metabolic acidosis). The PaCO2 is 27 mm Hg (low, indicating partial respiratory compensation).
Systematic ABG interpretation is required to determine the client's primary physiological alteration and compensatory state.
2
Correlate the ABG findings with the client's clinical presentation.
The client has severe sepsis, hypotension (82/46 mm Hg), and tachycardia. These are signs of shock, leading to cellular hypoxia, anaerobic metabolism, and lactic acidosis.
Understanding the etiology of the metabolic acidosis guides appropriate clinical interventions.
3
Evaluate the respiratory pattern.
The respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min with deep, rapid inspirations (Kussmaul respirations) is the body's attempt to blow off CO2 to raise the pH.
Interfering with a vital compensatory mechanism can lead to rapid physiological decompensation.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing action.
The nurse must address the root cause (hypoperfusion) by optimizing hemodynamics with fluids or vasopressors rather than attempting to alter the compensatory respiratory pattern.
In shock states, restoring tissue perfusion is the definitive treatment for resolving lactic acidosis.

Key Concept

In shock states, metabolic acidosis occurs due to lactic acid accumulation from tissue hypoperfusion. The body compensates via hyperventilation (Kussmaul respirations) to decrease PaCO2. Nursing care must focus on restoring perfusion rather than suppressing the compensatory respiratory drive.
Question 7Question →

During the initial recovery period following a percutaneous coronary intervention via the right femoral approach, a client reports a new, deep ache in the right lower back. Vital sign trending over the past 30 minutes shows the heart rate increasing from 82 to 114 bpm and the blood pressure decreasing from 128/74 to 104/58 mm Hg. Which action is the priority?

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Answer: Assess the right groin and retroperitoneal area for firmness, swelling, and ecchymosis

Answer

The priority action is to assess the right groin and retroperitoneal area for firmness, swelling, and ecchymosis.
The correct action directly addresses the most critical risk. The client's symptoms (new back pain, tachycardia, and decreasing blood pressure) strongly suggest a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Inspecting the groin and flank for ecchymosis (Grey Turner's sign) and swelling is the immediate priority assessment to validate this life-threatening complication so rapid intervention can be initiated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical cues provided in the scenario.
The client has new lower back pain, tachycardia (HR 114), and falling blood pressure (BP 104/58) following a right femoral artery procedure.
Identifying abnormal trends is the first step in recognizing post-procedure complications.
2
Correlate the symptoms with potential physiological complications of a femoral access procedure.
The combination of flank/back pain and signs of hypovolemia strongly indicates retroperitoneal bleeding, a life-threatening complication of femoral arterial access.
Blood leaking from the femoral artery can track backward into the retroperitoneal space, causing severe pain and subtle early signs of shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing action using the nursing process.
The nurse must immediately assess the groin and flank for physical signs of bleeding (ecchymosis, swelling, firmness) to confirm the suspicion before escalating care.
Targeted physical assessment provides necessary data to report to the healthcare provider for immediate medical intervention.

Key Concept

Recognition and mitigation of retroperitoneal hemorrhage following femoral artery access.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 8Question →

A registered nurse is evaluating a client being treated for severe bacterial pneumonia. Over the past hour, the client has become visibly agitated and restless. Current assessment parameters include a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, and cool, diaphoretic extremities. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air yields the following: pH 7.50, PaCO2 26 mm Hg, PaO2 54 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply a non-rebreather mask with high-flow oxygen and immediately notify the rapid response team

Answer

Apply a non-rebreather mask with high-flow oxygen and immediately notify the rapid response team.
The client's clinical presentation indicates acute respiratory failure and early compensatory shock, evidenced by severe hypoxemia (PaO2 54 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, agitation, and cool, diaphoretic skin. The respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.50, PaCO2 26 mm Hg) is a consequence of the client hyperventilating in a physiological attempt to increase oxygen intake. The immediate priority is to correct the severe hypoxemia with high-flow oxygen and escalate care by notifying the rapid response team to prevent further decompensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pH of 7.50 indicates alkalemia. The PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg indicates a respiratory origin. The PaO2 of 54 mm Hg reveals severe hypoxemia.
Identifying the primary acid-base imbalance and oxygenation status is essential for accurate clinical judgment.
2
Correlate the ABG results with the physical assessment findings.
The tachypnea (32 breaths/min) is causing the respiratory alkalosis. The agitation, tachycardia, and cool, diaphoretic skin are classic early signs of hypoxia and compensatory shock.
Lab values must always be interpreted in the context of the client's systemic physiological presentation.
3
Determine the underlying pathophysiology driving the client's deterioration.
The hyperventilation is a physiological attempt to compensate for the severe, life-threatening hypoxemia.
Treating the root cause (hypoxemia) rather than the compensatory mechanism (hyperventilation) is critical for survival.
4
Select the highest priority nursing intervention.
The client requires immediate high-flow oxygen administration and escalation of care via the rapid response team.
Airway and Breathing take absolute precedence in an unstable, rapidly deteriorating client.

Key Concept

Recognizing early physiological signs of shock and severe hypoxemia alongside accurate ABG interpretation.
Question 9Question →

A nurse is assuming care for a client who underwent a lumbar puncture 30 minutes ago. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain to minimize the client's risk of developing a post-procedure complication?

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Answer: Supine with the head of the bed flat

Answer

Supine with the head of the bed flat
The correct answer is to keep the client supine with the head of the bed flat. Following a lumbar puncture, a small hole remains in the dura mater. Remaining flat minimizes hydrostatic pressure on this site, reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage and the subsequent development of a severe spinal headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure performed and its most common complications.
The client had a lumbar puncture, which carries a high risk of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage leading to a debilitating spinal headache.
Understanding the procedure's specific risks dictates the appropriate preventive nursing interventions.
2
Determine the correct nursing intervention to prevent this specific complication.
Keeping the client completely flat distributes CSF pressure evenly and minimizes leakage from the dural puncture site.
Gravity increases pressure on the puncture site if the head is elevated, exacerbating the leak.
3
Select the option that matches this positioning requirement.
The supine position with the head of the bed flat is the correct choice.
This directly addresses the physiological risk identified and ensures client safety.

Key Concept

Post-lumbar puncture positioning to prevent spinal headache
Question 10Question →

Following a diagnostic spinal tap, a client is transported back to the clinical unit. The client is alert and reports a dull ache near the lumbar insertion site. To promote client comfort and minimize the risk of procedural complications, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ensure the client remains resting in a completely flat, horizontal position for the prescribed duration.

Answer

Ensure the client remains resting in a completely flat, horizontal position for the prescribed duration.
After a lumbar puncture, placing the client in a flat, supine posture is the standard evidence-based intervention. This position equalizes pressure in the central nervous system, drastically reducing the loss of cerebrospinal fluid through the puncture site and thereby preventing a post-dural puncture headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure the client just underwent and its common complications.
The client had a diagnostic spinal tap (lumbar puncture), which carries a high risk of a post-dural puncture headache due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
Understanding the procedural risks dictates the appropriate basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Determine the optimal positioning to prevent this complication.
A flat, supine posture is required to equalize pressure and allow the dural puncture site to seal.
Positioning is a primary independent nursing intervention to promote comfort and prevent post-procedure injury.
3
Evaluate the distractors against the correct nursing action and scope of practice.
Elevating the head or maintaining a fetal position is contraindicated post-procedure. Furthermore, assessing a dressing cannot be delegated.
Safe nursing practice requires selecting the most appropriate evidence-based intervention while adhering to delegation rules.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Comfort
Question 11Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. Initially, the client was tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, and the initial arterial blood gas (ABG) revealed a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 72 mm Hg. Two hours after receiving continuous nebulized bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids, the client remains diaphoretic, is using accessory muscles to breathe, and has significantly diminished breath sounds bilaterally. A repeat ABG shows a pH of 7.38, PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 64 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of the client's condition and the priority nursing action?

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Answer: The client is demonstrating respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure; prepare for immediate airway management and intubation.

Answer

The client is demonstrating respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure; prepare for immediate airway management and intubation.
During an acute asthma exacerbation, clients typically hyperventilate to overcome airway resistance, resulting in a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis). If the client continues to exhibit severe distress (accessory muscle use, diaphoresis) and significantly diminished breath sounds (suggesting very little air movement), a PaCO2 that normalizes or rises is an ominous sign. It indicates that the client's respiratory muscles are fatigued, and they are losing the ability to ventilate adequately. This signifies impending respiratory failure, and the priority nursing action is to prepare for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation to secure the airway and support breathing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is diaphoretic, using accessory muscles, and has diminished breath sounds.
Clinical signs provide critical context for interpreting diagnostic data. Diminished breath sounds in an asthma exacerbation indicate severely restricted airflow.
2
Interpret the initial and repeat ABG results.
Initial ABG showed respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2) from hyperventilation. The repeat ABG shows a 'normal' pH and PaCO2, but worsening hypoxemia (lower PaO2).
Comparing trends is essential. In a patient struggling to breathe, a normalizing PaCO2 is a paradoxical finding.
3
Synthesize the clinical and laboratory findings to determine the priority.
The combination of severe respiratory distress and a normalizing PaCO2 means the client can no longer maintain the work of breathing. Impending respiratory failure is occurring.
Recognizing that a 'normal' PaCO2 in the setting of severe asthma is a danger sign ensures timely life-saving interventions.

Key Concept

In severe asthma, a normalizing or elevated PaCO2 combined with continued respiratory distress indicates respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure, requiring immediate intubation.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 12Question →

An older adult client with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted for acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and requires continuous bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). The client becomes intensely agitated, repeatedly attempting to remove the BiPAP mask and grasp at an indwelling arterial line. The healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints and PRN intravenous lorazepam for severe agitation. Which intervention should the nurse implement to best maintain client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place padded mitts on the client's hands and initiate continuous one-to-one observation with a trained sitter.

Answer

Place padded mitts on the client's hands and initiate continuous one-to-one observation with a trained sitter.
The correct answer emphasizes using the least restrictive alternative (padded mitts) combined with continuous observation (1:1 sitter). This approach prevents the client from grasping critical life-support devices without utilizing dangerous sedatives or restrictive limb ties that could exacerbate the respiratory failure by increasing metabolic demand and agitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's primary physiological risk.
The client is in acute hypercapnic respiratory failure; any intervention that depresses respiratory drive (like lorazepam) or increases metabolic demand (like fighting limb restraints) is a critical life threat.
Airway and breathing must be prioritized over managing the agitation.
2
Evaluate the safety interventions available.
The options are chemical restraints, physical limb restraints, improper delegation of monitoring, or less restrictive physical alternatives (mitts) with direct observation.
Nurses are required to use the least restrictive restraint alternative that ensures safety.
3
Select the safest, least restrictive intervention that protects the medical devices.
Applying padded mitts and utilizing a 1:1 sitter protects the BiPAP mask and arterial line without depressing the respiratory drive or unlawfully delegating assessments.
This strategy addresses the immediate physical threat (device removal) while honoring safety protocols regarding restraint escalation and scope of practice.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention: Restraint Alternatives and Prioritization
Question 13Question →

A nurse receives the shift report for a group of assigned clients on a medical-surgical trauma unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate assessment and intervention?

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Answer: A client with blunt abdominal trauma whose heart rate has steadily increased from 82 to 114 beats per minute over the past hour.

Answer

The client with blunt abdominal trauma and a steadily increasing heart rate requires immediate assessment.
The correct answer describes a client exhibiting a classic early sign of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia) following blunt abdominal trauma. The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate to maintain cardiac output as blood volume decreases from internal hemorrhage. This is a life-threatening physiological crisis requiring immediate intervention to stabilize the client's circulation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical data for the client with blunt abdominal trauma.
The heart rate has increased significantly from 82 to 114 beats per minute, which is a cardinal early sign of compensatory shock.
Trauma clients are at high risk for covert internal bleeding, such as a splenic or hepatic laceration.
2
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) for the client with COPD.
A pH of 7.36 (normal), PaCO2 of 54 (high), and HCO3 of 30 (high) indicates a fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
Recognizing chronic baseline compensation prevents the nurse from mistaking a stable chronic condition for an acute respiratory emergency.
3
Assess the positioning of the post-cardiac catheterization client.
The client is flat and supine, which is the medically prescribed position to prevent femoral artery bleeding.
Correct positioning confirms the client's current status is safe and expected.
4
Compare all clients to determine the highest priority based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The trauma client with progressive tachycardia has an acute circulation threat, making them the absolute highest priority.
Prioritization requires identifying acute, life-threatening changes over expected or stable chronic findings.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Acute Physiological Decompensation over Expected Chronic Findings
Question 14Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted 12 hours ago with severe acute pancreatitis. The client's current assessment reveals pale, diaphoretic skin and a total urine output of 25 mL over the past two hours. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg, heart rate 136 beats/min, and respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 15 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Infuse a prescribed rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The correct action is to rapidly infuse isotonic fluids to treat the underlying hypovolemic shock caused by third-spacing.
The client is experiencing severe hypovolemic shock as a result of massive retroperitoneal fluid shifts (third-spacing) characteristic of severe acute pancreatitis. The hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and resulting lactic acidosis (demonstrated by the ABG values) require immediate intravascular volume expansion. Isotonic crystalloid infusion is the primary life-saving action to restore perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical assessment data.
The client exhibits severe hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and diaphoresis, which are classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to severe third-spacing common in acute pancreatitis.
Identifying the primary physiological derangement dictates the urgency and type of intervention required.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The ABG shows a metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (low PaCO2). This is lactic acidosis resulting from inadequate cellular perfusion.
Understanding the etiology of the acid-base imbalance prevents inappropriate interventions that only treat the lab values.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention using the ABCs and principles of shock management.
Restoring intravascular circulating volume (Circulation) with isotonic fluids is the definitive first-line treatment to reverse the hypoperfusion and correct the secondary acidosis.
Without adequate fluid volume, other interventions (like vasopressors) are ineffective and potentially harmful.

Key Concept

Management of hypovolemic shock and third-spacing in acute pancreatitis
Question 15Question →

The registered nurse (RN) is managing care delivery on an acute neurovascular step-down unit. Which task assignment demonstrates adherence to the principles of safe delegation?

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Answer: Instructing the UAP to apply bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a client who is completely immobile following a severe hemorrhagic stroke.

Answer

The correct delegation is instructing the UAP to apply bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the immobile client.
The correct answer identifies a task that is standard, routine, and carries a predictable outcome. While the client has a serious condition (hemorrhagic stroke), applying SCDs does not require ongoing clinical judgment, making it a perfectly safe and appropriate task to delegate to a UAP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical stability and required assessment for the client reporting sudden dizziness.
Sudden dizziness indicates a potential acute neurological change. The client is unstable.
An unstable client with new symptoms requires an RN assessment before any tasks are delegated (Right Circumstance).
2
Analyze the airway risk for the client needing oral hygiene with an absent gag reflex.
The absent gag reflex presents a severe aspiration risk, requiring continuous clinical judgment during oral care.
Tasks requiring nursing judgment, airway protection, and assessment cannot be delegated to a UAP (Right Task).
3
Determine if reinforcing physical therapy instructions falls within the UAP scope of practice.
Teaching and reinforcing education are beyond the scope of practice for a UAP.
The nursing process, including client education, cannot be delegated to unlicensed personnel (Right Task).
4
Assess the complexity of applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to an immobile client.
Applying SCDs is a routine, standard procedure with predictable outcomes that does not require independent nursing judgment.
Even if a client has a severe underlying diagnosis, routine, non-invasive tasks can safely be delegated to a UAP.

Key Concept

The Five Rights of Delegation (Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision)
Question 16Question →

While receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), a client suddenly develops a high fever. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose of intravenous ceftriaxone. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the antibiotic.

Answer

The correct action is to establish a new, separate peripheral intravenous catheter for the administration of the antibiotic to maintain the dedicated TPN line.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, amino acids, and potentially lipids, making them highly incompatible with most medications. Additionally, the high glucose content makes the TPN line a prime site for bacterial growth. Evidence-based practice mandates that TPN must be infused through a dedicated line. Therefore, establishing a separate peripheral IV access is required to administer the prescribed antibiotic safely without interrupting or compromising the TPN line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current intravenous therapy and access.
The client has a single-lumen PICC line currently infusing TPN.
Assessing current access determines if it can be safely used for newly prescribed medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and safety guidelines for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line and cannot be mixed or paused for other medications.
The high dextrose and amino acid content in TPN creates a high risk for drug precipitation and bacterial growth.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed intravenous antibiotic.
A new peripheral IV site must be established.
This preserves the dedicated TPN line while ensuring the client receives the necessary medication promptly.

Key Concept

Safe administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Question 17Question →

A client is preparing for discharge following a 4-week hospitalization for severe Guillain-Barré syndrome. While the client's respiratory function is now stable, they exhibit significant residual weakness in their intrinsic hand muscles, preventing them from grasping eating utensils or manipulating buttons on clothing. The client's spouse expresses feeling overwhelmed about managing these daily care tasks at home and states, 'I do not know how we will afford all the special tools the doctor said we might need.' Which interdisciplinary collaboration action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult the occupational therapist to train the spouse in adaptive self-care techniques and the medical social worker to identify community financial resources.

Answer

The correct action is to consult the occupational therapist to train the spouse in adaptive self-care techniques and the medical social worker to identify community financial resources.
The correct answer accurately identifies the distinct scopes of practice required for this client's specific deficits. The occupational therapist (OT) specializes in fine motor skills, upper extremity function, and adapting activities of daily living (ADLs) such as eating and dressing. The medical social worker (MSW) is the appropriate team member to evaluate financial constraints, coordinate community resources, and assist with acquiring affordable medical equipment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has fine motor deficits preventing them from grasping utensils or buttoning clothes, and the caregiver has severe financial anxieties regarding medical equipment.
Identifying specific needs dictates which interdisciplinary team members should be consulted.
2
Match the clinical deficits to the appropriate allied health scopes of practice.
Fine motor skills and activities of daily living (ADL) adaptations fall within the scope of occupational therapy, not physical therapy.
Proper interprofessional collaboration requires accurate knowledge of each team member's expertise.
3
Address the psychosocial and financial concerns.
The medical social worker is the optimal referral for navigating insurance, finances, and community assistance programs.
Holistic care requires addressing both physical and psychosocial barriers to a safe discharge.
4
Evaluate the distractor actions for safety and communication errors.
Delegating teaching to a UAP is unsafe and outside their scope, and offering unverified financial promises is non-therapeutic false reassurance.
Safe and effective care environments mandate appropriate delegation and therapeutic communication.

Key Concept

Interdisciplinary collaboration requires the registered nurse to accurately identify client needs and match them to the distinct scopes of practice of allied health professionals, while maintaining safe delegation and therapeutic communication boundaries.
Question 18Question →

A registered nurse (RN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are working together on a nephrology unit. Which of the following client care activities is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to the UAP?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recording the volume of urine emptied from an indwelling catheter collection bag for a client with acute kidney injury.

Answer

Recording the volume of urine emptied from an indwelling catheter collection bag for a client with acute kidney injury.
Measuring and recording intake and output, including emptying indwelling catheter bags, is a routine and predictable task that does not require independent nursing judgment. Therefore, it is safely within the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), regardless of the client's diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Identify that UAPs can perform routine, standard, and predictable tasks for stable clients, but cannot perform tasks requiring nursing judgment, assessment, teaching, or evaluation (the 'EAT' acronym).
This establishes the criteria for safe delegation.
2
Evaluate each provided task against the UAP scope of practice.
Determine that palpating a fistula requires assessment, explaining fluid restriction requires teaching, and taking initial post-procedure vital signs requires assessment and clinical judgment for a potentially unstable client.
This eliminates inappropriate tasks based on the established delegation criteria.
3
Identify the task that falls within the UAP's capabilities.
Select the task of measuring and recording urine output from a catheter.
This is a routine, predictable task that does not require independent nursing judgment, even if the client has an acute condition.

Key Concept

Delegation of tasks to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
Question 19Question →

A client with newly diagnosed severe coronary artery disease is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft. The nurse brings the informed consent document to the client's room for a signature. The client states, "The doctor said I need this surgery, but I do not really understand what the alternative treatments are or what will happen if I refuse it. I will sign it anyway because I want to get better." Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Inform the client that the form should not be signed yet and notify the surgeon to return and answer the client's questions.

Answer

Inform the client that the form should not be signed yet and notify the surgeon to return and answer the client's questions.
The nurse's role in informed consent is to act as an advocate, witness the signature, verify that the client is competent, and confirm that the client comprehends the procedure. Because the client explicitly states a lack of understanding regarding alternatives and the risks of refusal, the consent is not truly informed. The nurse must halt the signing process and notify the healthcare provider, whose legal responsibility is to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's understanding of the planned surgical procedure.
The client expresses a lack of understanding regarding alternative treatments and the consequences of refusing the surgery.
The nurse must verify that the client has received and understands the information provided by the surgeon before witnessing the signature.
2
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention based on the client's knowledge deficit.
The nurse identifies that the client cannot legally give informed consent at this time.
Informed consent requires the client to fully comprehend the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives.
3
Implement the correct advocacy action.
The nurse stops the consent process and contacts the healthcare provider.
It is the healthcare provider's legal responsibility to explain the procedure and its alternatives. The nurse acts as a client advocate by ensuring the provider returns to address the knowledge deficit.

Key Concept

The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the signature and advocate for the client by ensuring they fully understand the information provided by the healthcare provider.
Question 20Question →

A client with an intra-abdominal infection is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of metronidazole. The client reports severe nausea, and the healthcare provider prescribes a dose of intravenous ondansetron. The client has a single peripheral intravenous line. After consulting a pharmacological reference, the nurse identifies that metronidazole and ondansetron are incompatible at the Y-site. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the prescribed antiemetic?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the continuous infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the ondansetron, flush the line again, and resume the continuous infusion.

Answer

Pause the continuous infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the ondansetron, flush the line again, and resume the continuous infusion.
When an intravenous medication must be administered through a line currently infusing an incompatible solution, the nurse must prevent the two substances from mixing. If the primary infusion can be safely paused (as is the case with most continuous antibiotics), the standard procedure is to stop the pump, flush the line with a compatible fluid like 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the secondary medication, and flush the line again before resuming the primary infusion. This technique effectively clears the tubing and maintains parenteral safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the incompatibility between the continuous metronidazole infusion and the prescribed intravenous ondansetron.
Recognize that the two medications cannot mix in the intravenous tubing.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause crystallization or precipitation, which can lead to a loss of drug efficacy or a dangerous embolism.
2
Evaluate the clinical safety of pausing the primary infusion.
Determine that pausing an antibiotic infusion for a few minutes is clinically safe and acceptable.
Unlike continuous vasopressors or antiarrhythmics, antibiotics do not cause immediate hemodynamic instability if briefly paused.
3
Execute the flush-administer-flush protocol.
Clear the line with a compatible solution (e.g., normal saline), administer the antiemetic, and clear the line again before restarting the primary infusion.
This physical separation ensures the incompatible drugs never come into contact with each other.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration Practices
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