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Question 3081Question →

A community health nurse is conducting a home visit to evaluate the self-care practices and health literacy of an older adult client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a history of mild dysphagia. The client employs an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for assistance with basic activities of daily living. Which observations or statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of safe self-care management? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: The client independently uses a long-handled shatterproof mirror to inspect the soles of the feet.; The client ensures the home's water heater is set to a maximum of 110°F (43.3°C).; The client schedules structured rest periods between morning grooming and dressing activities.

Answer

The correct observations are the independent use of a long-handled mirror for foot inspection, setting the home water heater to a maximum of 110°F (43.3°C), and scheduling structured rest periods.
The correct options demonstrate evidence-based self-care and safety strategies for an older adult managing multiple chronic conditions. Using a long-handled mirror allows the client to independently assess the plantar surfaces of their feet without straining, which is essential for preventing diabetic ulcers. Limiting the home water heater temperature to a maximum of 110°F (43.3°C) prevents accidental scalding, providing a safe environment for a client who may have diminished temperature sensation due to diabetic neuropathy. Finally, pacing activities with scheduled rest periods is a foundational energy conservation technique that promotes sustained independence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's environmental and physical safety actions.
Using a long-handled mirror for foot inspection and setting the water heater to 110°F (43.3°C) are safe, effective self-care strategies for a client with diabetes.
These actions promote independence while minimizing the risk of undetected foot ulcers and accidental thermal injuries.
2
Evaluate the client's energy conservation strategies.
Scheduling rest periods between grooming activities demonstrates safe pacing.
Structuring activities prevents excessive fatigue and allows the client to maintain independence in their daily routine.
3
Evaluate the client's understanding of positioning and aspiration risks.
The client's plan to lie flat immediately after eating is unsafe.
Supine positioning post-meal significantly increases the risk of aspiration, which is a critical safety hazard for a client with dysphagia.
4
Assess the client's understanding of healthcare roles and symptom recognition.
Asking a UAP to evaluate swallowing is incorrect delegation, and attributing sudden confusion to normal aging is a dangerous misconception.
Clinical assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP. Furthermore, sudden confusion is an acute pathological sign requiring immediate medical intervention, not a normal part of aging.

Key Concept

Safe self-care management involves adapting activities for physical limitations, maintaining environmental safety, and distinguishing acute pathology from normal aging.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3082Question →

Immediately following a percutaneous liver biopsy, an older adult client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit. The client reports mild discomfort near the insertion site and suddenly exhibits new-onset restlessness. Which intervention is the most appropriate action for the nurse to implement?

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Answer: Assist the client into a right lateral position and place a folded towel directly under the biopsy site.

Answer

The most appropriate immediate action is to assist the client into a right lateral position and place a folded towel directly under the biopsy site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at a high risk for hemorrhage due to the extreme vascularity of the liver tissue. Placing the client in a right lateral (side-lying) position with a folded towel or small pillow under the costal margin applies direct, sustained external pressure to the liver capsule. This mechanical compression promotes hemostasis, prevents hematoma formation, and is a critical basic care standard for this specific procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedural risks associated with the client's recent treatment.
A percutaneous liver biopsy involves puncturing a highly vascular organ, making internal hemorrhage the most significant immediate complication.
Understanding procedural risks is essential for prioritizing immediate post-operative nursing care.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the client's symptoms.
The client is exhibiting sudden new-onset restlessness, which is a classic early sign of decreased oxygenation to the brain, potentially indicating occult bleeding.
Recognizing early signs of shock ensures timely intervention before the client becomes hemodynamically unstable.
3
Select the intervention that directly addresses the primary physiological risk.
Placing the client on their right side with a towel underneath applies mechanical pressure to the biopsy site, effectively reducing the bleeding risk.
Physical positioning is a primary basic care and comfort measure used to prevent post-procedural complications.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Post-Procedure Positioning
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3083Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled intravenous (IV) push medication into a client's continuous primary IV fluid infusion. To prevent a potentially life-threatening complication, which action must the nurse perform immediately prior to administration?

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Answer: Verify the chemical compatibility of the medication with the primary IV fluid.

Answer

Verify the chemical compatibility of the medication with the primary IV fluid.
Verifying the chemical compatibility of an IV medication with the primary infusing fluid is a fundamental safety principle. If incompatible solutions mix within the IV tubing, they can crystalize or form a precipitate. This solid matter can enter the client's bloodstream and cause a life-threatening complication, such as an embolism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical task being performed.
The nurse is preparing to administer an IV push medication into an active, continuous IV line.
Establishing the procedure determines the necessary safety protocols and rules of administration.
2
Determine the priority safety check for mixing an IV medication with a continuous fluid.
The nurse must verify that the two solutions are chemically compatible.
Mixing incompatible medications and IV fluids can cause a precipitate to form in the tubing, leading to a potentially fatal embolus.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Safety and Compatibility
Question 3084Question →

A client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone. The healthcare provider prescribes a one-time dose of intravenous furosemide 40 mg40\text{ mg} to manage worsening pulmonary edema. The client currently has a single peripheral intravenous access site. After consulting the facility's drug reference, the nurse notes that furosemide and milrinone are incompatible. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Establish a second peripheral intravenous access site to administer the furosemide.

Answer

Establish a second peripheral intravenous access site to administer the furosemide.
Furosemide and milrinone are chemically incompatible and cannot be mixed. While stopping an infusion and flushing the line is an acceptable practice for routine continuous fluids (like normal saline), milrinone is a critical continuous inotropic infusion. Pausing a vasoactive medication to administer an IV push can lead to an abrupt drop in cardiac output and severe hemodynamic instability. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to establish a new, separate intravenous access site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the incompatibility between the prescribed medications.
The nurse confirms that intravenous furosemide and milrinone cannot be mixed or administered through the same line concurrently.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause precipitation, leading to line occlusion or emboli.
2
Evaluate the nature of the continuous infusion.
The nurse recognizes that milrinone is a critical continuous inotropic medication used to support cardiac output in heart failure.
Understanding the pharmacology of the continuous infusion dictates whether it is safe to temporarily pause the medication.
3
Determine the safest administration strategy.
The nurse concludes that pausing the milrinone is unsafe due to the risk of hemodynamic collapse, and concurrent administration is unsafe due to incompatibility.
A second, independent intravenous line is required to safely administer the furosemide without interrupting life-sustaining therapy.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Vasoactive Infusion Safety
Question 3085Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is 4 hours post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which clinical finding should the nurse identify as an early indicator of hypovolemic shock?

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Answer: Restlessness and an unexplained increase in heart rate.

Answer

Restlessness and an unexplained increase in heart rate.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and oxygen delivery by activating the sympathetic nervous system. This results in an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and early neurological changes, such as restlessness or anxiety, due to subtle decreases in cerebral perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical scenario.
The client is 4 hours post-operative, placing them at high risk for hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the primary risk factor helps in anticipating possible complications.
2
Recall the physiological stages of shock.
Shock progresses from an early compensatory stage to a progressive, uncompensated stage.
Differentiating between early and late signs of shock is essential to answer the question correctly.
3
Evaluate the options based on early vs. late indicators.
Tachycardia and restlessness are early signs due to sympathetic stimulation. Hypotension and mottling are late signs when compensation fails.
This confirms which finding represents the earliest warning.

Key Concept

Early indicators of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia, tachypnea, and altered mental status (restlessness) as the body attempts to compensate for decreased fluid volume.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3086Question →

Following a prolonged transcontinental flight, a traveler is brought to the urgent care clinic reporting sudden, sharp chest pain and severe shortness of breath. Initial assessment reveals a heart rate of 122 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 98/80 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air demonstrates a pHpH of 7.54, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 26 mmHg, PaO2PaO_2 of 54 mmHg, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 23 mEq/L. Which physiological adaptations accurately reflect this client's current presentation? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Reduced ventricular stroke volume secondary to acute right heart strain; Alveolar hyperventilation resulting in a primary uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Answer

The accurate physiological adaptations are reduced ventricular stroke volume due to acute right heart strain and an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis driven by alveolar hyperventilation.
The clinical picture strongly suggests an acute pulmonary embolism leading to obstructive shock. The significant narrowing of the pulse pressure (98 - 80 = 18 mmHg) coupled with tachycardia demonstrates reduced ventricular stroke volume from right heart strain and subsequent compensatory sympathetic vasoconstriction. Additionally, the severe tachypnea (32 breaths/min) has caused excessive elimination of CO2CO_2, resulting in a high pHpH (7.54) and low PaCO2PaCO_2 (26 mmHg) with normal bicarbonate, which defines an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the hemodynamic vital signs to identify early markers of shock.
The blood pressure of 98/80 mmHg reveals a narrowed pulse pressure of 18 mmHg. Combined with tachycardia (122 bpm), this indicates compensatory sympathetic activation due to decreased stroke volume.
Recognizing a narrow pulse pressure is critical for identifying early obstructive or hypovolemic shock before profound hypotension occurs.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
The pHpH is elevated (7.54), indicating alkalemia. The PaCO2PaCO_2 is low (26 mmHg), indicating a respiratory etiology. The HCO3−HCO_3^- is normal (23 mEq/L), indicating an uncompensated state.
ABG interpretation determines the specific acid-base imbalance and the presence or absence of metabolic compensation.
3
Evaluate the effect of the acid-base disturbance on oxygen delivery.
The respiratory alkalosis will cause a leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve.
A leftward shift means hemoglobin has an increased affinity for oxygen, making it harder to release oxygen to the tissues, exacerbating cellular hypoxia despite the measured PaO2PaO_2.

Key Concept

Physiological adaptation to acute pulmonary embolism involves obstructive shock hemodynamics (narrow pulse pressure, tachycardia) and uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
Question 3087Question →

A clinic nurse is developing a self-care teaching plan for a 72-year-old client with rheumatoid arthritis who is experiencing significant bilateral hand stiffness and pain. Which action or instruction should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to best promote independence?

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Answer: Instruct the client to utilize adaptive equipment, such as built-up handles on utensils and zipper pulls, to minimize stress on the small joints.

Answer

The nurse should instruct the client to utilize adaptive equipment, such as built-up handles on utensils and zipper pulls, to minimize stress on the small joints.
The correct action promotes independence and self-care by utilizing adaptive devices that allow the client to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) without placing excessive strain on the small, inflamed joints of the hands. This aligns with the principles of joint protection and energy conservation for clients with rheumatoid arthritis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's specific clinical condition and functional needs.
The client has rheumatoid arthritis with significant hand stiffness, which impairs the ability to perform fine motor tasks required for dressing and eating.
Identifying the functional limitations is essential for planning appropriate self-care interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed nursing interventions against safety, scope of practice, and pathophysiological principles.
Using adaptive equipment directly addresses the functional limitation. Delegating evaluation violates scope of practice. Normalizing acute confusion is dangerous. Misidentifying screening as primary prevention is factually incorrect.
Nurses must select evidence-based strategies that safely empower the client while avoiding delegation errors and clinical misjudgments.

Key Concept

Self-Care and Joint Protection in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Question 3088Question →

A telemetry unit nurse is monitoring a client who has a long-standing history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was admitted yesterday with a severe lower respiratory tract infection. During the current assessment, the nurse observes that the client is somnolent and only responds to painful stimuli. The respiratory rate has dropped from 26 to 9 breaths per minute. The most recent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.217.21, a PaCO 2_2 of 7878 mmHg, an HCO 3−_3^- of 2929 mEq/L, and a PaO 2_2 of 5454 mmHg. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?

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Answer: Provide immediate ventilatory assistance with a bag-valve-mask device.

Answer

Provide immediate ventilatory assistance with a bag-valve-mask device.
The correct action is to provide immediate ventilatory assistance with a bag-valve-mask device. The client is experiencing acute hypercapnic respiratory failure (carbon dioxide narcosis), as evidenced by the severe drop in respiratory rate (9 breaths per minute), altered level of consciousness (somnolent, responds only to pain), and severe respiratory acidosis (pH 7.21, PaCO2 78 mmHg). When a client loses the drive or ability to spontaneously ventilate, the immediate priority is to artificially support their airway and breathing to facilitate gas exchange and remove excess carbon dioxide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current clinical presentation.
The client is somnolent, responds only to painful stimuli, and has a respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute.
Identifying the level of consciousness and respiratory effort is crucial for determining the ability to maintain a patent airway and adequate spontaneous ventilation.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH 7.21 indicates severe acidemia. PaCO2 78 mmHg indicates severe hypercapnia. HCO3 29 mEq/L indicates partial compensation. PaO2 54 mmHg indicates severe hypoxemia.
ABG interpretation confirms acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis resulting from profound alveolar hypoventilation.
3
Synthesize the findings to prioritize the nursing intervention.
The combination of bradypnea, unresponsiveness, and severe respiratory acidosis indicates impending respiratory arrest due to carbon dioxide narcosis.
When a client can no longer spontaneously breathe effectively enough to clear carbon dioxide or maintain oxygenation, manual mechanical ventilation must be initiated immediately prior to endotracheal intubation.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hypercapnic Respiratory Failure
Question 3089Question →

A 42-year-old client is being monitored in the neuro-intensive care unit following a severe traumatic brain injury. The client is sedated and mechanically ventilated. Current assessment findings include an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 26 mm Hg, a blood pressure of 170/65 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 52 beats/min. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, PaO2 94 mm Hg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce the client's risk for further neurological deterioration?

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Answer: Anticipate an order to increase the mechanical ventilator rate to decrease the arterial carbon dioxide level.

Answer

The correct action is to anticipate an order to increase the mechanical ventilator rate to lower the arterial carbon dioxide level, which will cause cerebral vasoconstriction and reduce intracranial pressure.
The client is exhibiting Cushing's triad (bradycardia, severe hypertension with widened pulse pressure) and an elevated intracranial pressure (ICP), indicating impending brainstem herniation. The arterial blood gas reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.28, PaCO2 58 mm Hg). Elevated PaCO2 causes potent cerebral vasodilation, which increases cerebral blood volume and further elevates ICP. Increasing the ventilator rate will blow off excess CO2, causing cerebral vasoconstriction and immediately reducing the risk of herniation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical findings.
The client has an elevated ICP of 26 mm Hg, severe hypertension with a widened pulse pressure (170/65 mm Hg), and bradycardia (52 bpm).
These findings represent Cushing's triad, indicating impending, life-threatening brainstem herniation.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG shows a low pH (7.28), high PaCO2 (58 mm Hg), and normal HCO3 (24 mEq/L), which indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Understanding the precise acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine the physiological cause of the neurological deterioration.
3
Connect the laboratory data to the clinical pathophysiology of the brain injury.
Hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2) is a potent cerebral vasodilator. This vasodilation increases cerebral blood volume, directly driving up the intracranial pressure.
Identifying the physiological trigger guides the selection of the most effective risk-reduction strategy.
4
Select the intervention that immediately reduces the physiological risk.
Increasing the mechanical ventilator rate.
A higher respiratory rate blows off excess carbon dioxide, inducing cerebral vasoconstriction and immediately reducing the intracranial pressure to prevent herniation.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Management of Increased Intracranial Pressure and Respiratory Acidosis
Question 3090Question →

A client in the active phase of labor is receiving an intravenous oxytocin infusion to augment uterine contractions. While monitoring the client, the nurse observes that the fetal heart rate gradually decreases, with the lowest point of the deceleration occurring consistently after the peak of each uterine contraction. The fetal heart rate slowly returns to baseline after the contraction ends. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.

Answer

Stop the continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion immediately.
The pattern described is a late deceleration, which indicates uteroplacental insufficiency and potential fetal hypoxia. When a client is receiving oxytocin, the priority action is to immediately stop the infusion. This decreases uterine activity, which allows placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation to improve.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the described fetal heart rate pattern.
The decelerations reach their nadir after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends, which defines a late deceleration.
Accurate interpretation of electronic fetal monitoring is essential to determine fetal well-being.
2
Identify the underlying physiological cause of the pattern.
Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, meaning the fetus is experiencing hypoxia during contractions.
Understanding the cause directs the appropriate resuscitative interventions.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The most immediate action is to stop the oxytocin infusion.
Oxytocin causes uterine contractions. Stopping it reduces uterine activity, which immediately improves blood flow and oxygen delivery to the placenta and fetus.

Key Concept

Intrauterine resuscitation for late decelerations
Question 3091Question →

While managing the care of a critically ill client diagnosed with severe sepsis, the nurse monitors for the complication of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which specific assessment findings signify that the client has entered the early stages of this pulmonary complication? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) of 54 mm Hg (7.2 kPa) despite oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask; Chest radiograph revealing diffuse, bilateral pulmonary opacities; Sudden onset of severe tachypnea and use of accessory muscles

Answer

The correct findings indicating early-stage ARDS are a PaO2 of 54 mm Hg despite high-flow oxygen, bilateral diffuse opacities on the chest radiograph, and a sudden onset of severe tachypnea with accessory muscle use.
The diagnosis of early-stage ARDS is supported by the presence of refractory hypoxemia (low PaO2 despite high oxygen delivery), diffuse bilateral pulmonary opacities on a chest radiograph due to increased capillary permeability, and early clinical signs of respiratory distress such as sudden tachypnea and accessory muscle use.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the pathophysiology and diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
ARDS is a form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema characterized by widespread inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and loss of surfactant, leading to alveolar collapse.
Understanding the underlying mechanism distinguishes ARDS from cardiogenic causes of respiratory failure.
2
Analyze the options for early clinical manifestations of ARDS.
Early signs include severe tachypnea, increased work of breathing, and respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. The chest radiograph will show bilateral opacities.
Identifying timeline-specific symptoms is critical, as manifestations change (e.g., progression from respiratory alkalosis to respiratory acidosis) as the condition worsens.
3
Evaluate the hemodynamic and oxygenation indicators associated with ARDS.
Refractory hypoxemia is present, meaning PaO2 remains low despite high FiO2. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) should be normal (less than 18 mm Hg) because the edema is non-cardiogenic.
Hemodynamic parameters like PAWP definitively differentiate ARDS from left-sided heart failure and cardiogenic shock.

Key Concept

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) Pathophysiology and Assessment
Question 3092Question →

A nurse is managing the care of an older adult client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. As part of the client's pressure injury prevention plan, the nurse must reposition the client into a flat, lateral recumbent position. Which action is the most appropriate?

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Answer: Suspend the continuous enteral feeding for at least 30 minutes before lowering the head of the bed.

Answer

Suspend the continuous enteral feeding for at least 30 minutes before lowering the head of the bed.
To prevent regurgitation and aspiration, continuous enteral feedings must be paused for 30 to 60 minutes before placing a client in a flat position, allowing sufficient time for gastric emptying.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risk associated with continuous enteral feeding.
The highest risk is aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs.
Enteral formulas introduced into the stomach can easily reflux up the esophagus if gravity is not utilized.
2
Determine the necessary positioning requirements for continuous enteral feeding.
The head of the bed must be maintained at an elevation of at least 30 degrees.
Elevation uses gravity to keep gastric contents in the stomach and prevent regurgitation.
3
Analyze the procedural requirement (flat, lateral recumbent position) against the feeding safety requirement.
The procedural position contradicts the safety requirement for active feeding.
Lying flat removes the gravitational barrier to reflux, making active feeding unsafe.
4
Select the appropriate nursing intervention to resolve the conflict.
The nurse must pause the feeding pump for 30 to 60 minutes before lowering the head of the bed.
This waiting period allows sufficient time for gastric emptying, significantly reducing the risk of aspiration when the client is laid flat.

Key Concept

Aspiration prevention during continuous enteral nutrition and client repositioning.
Question 3093Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is two days postoperative following an open exploratory laparotomy. The client coughs forcefully and reports a sudden "popping" sensation in the abdomen. The nurse assesses the surgical site and observes an evisceration. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the client's risk of complications? Arrange the actions in chronological order from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to call for help, position the client, cover the organs, assess vital signs, notify the surgeon, and prepare for surgery.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate client safety and organ viability. The nurse must first secure help to obtain supplies without abandoning the client. Next, placing the client in a low-Fowler's position with bent knees immediately reduces abdominal tension to prevent further evisceration. Once supplies arrive, covering the exposed organs with sterile, moist dressings is critical to prevent necrosis. Only after the organs are protected should the nurse assess vital signs to evaluate for shock. This assessment provides necessary data for the subsequent step of notifying the surgeon. Finally, the nurse prepares the client for definitive emergency surgery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Remain with the client and delegate a colleague to gather sterile supplies.
Immediate assistance is secured without abandoning the client.
The nurse must never leave a client with an evisceration due to the high risk of rapid physiological deterioration.
2
Position the client in a low-Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
Tension on the abdominal musculature is reduced.
This positioning prevents further protrusion of the viscera by relaxing the abdominal wall.
3
Cover the protruding internal organs with sterile dressings moistened with sterile normal saline.
The exposed viscera are protected from the environment.
Preventing bowel drying, ischemia, and necrosis is the most urgent physiological priority once supplies are available.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and peripheral perfusion.
The client's hemodynamic status is established.
Monitoring for hypovolemic shock provides critical baseline data needed before contacting the provider.
5
Communicate the assessment findings and the clinical emergency to the surgeon.
The surgical team is activated.
The surgeon needs the current vital signs and the exact clinical situation to initiate emergency surgical protocols.
6
Maintain the client's NPO status and prepare for immediate surgical intervention.
The client is readied for the operating room.
The definitive treatment for an evisceration is surgical closure.

Key Concept

Emergency management of surgical wound evisceration requires immediate interventions to reduce tension and protect organ viability before assessment and notification.
Question 3094Question →

A multidisciplinary team is providing care on a specialized infectious disease unit. The registered nurse (RN) is planning task distribution for the upcoming shift. Which action is most appropriate to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Applying a routine moisture barrier ointment to the intact perineal skin of a client following an incontinence episode

Answer

Applying a routine moisture barrier ointment to the intact perineal skin of a client following an incontinence episode
The correct answer is applying a routine moisture barrier ointment to intact skin. This is considered a standard activity of daily living (hygiene/skin care) that does not require medication administration rights (as it is a non-medicated or over-the-counter routine barrier) or nursing judgment, provided the skin remains intact.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each delegated task against the five rights of delegation and the UAP scope of practice.
Identify tasks that require nursing assessment, clinical judgment, or teaching.
The RN retains accountability for the delegation process and must not delegate the core components of the nursing process (EAT: Evaluation, Assessment, Teaching).
2
Evaluate the clinical stability of the clients described in the options.
Recognize that the client with sudden shortness of breath and the newly admitted client require RN-level critical thinking.
Tasks can only be delegated for stable clients with predictable outcomes.
3
Select the task that involves standard, unchanging basic care procedures.
Applying moisture barrier ointment to intact skin is identified as a safe hygiene intervention.
Routine ADLs (Activities of Daily Living) on intact skin carry low risk and are appropriate for UAP delegation.

Key Concept

Delegation of routine care tasks to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
Question 3095Question →

A client on a neurology unit is recovering from a traumatic brain injury and becomes highly disoriented during the night. The client repeatedly tries to pull out a continuous intravenous infusion line and an indwelling urinary catheter. After diversionary activities and frequent monitoring fail to ensure client safety, the healthcare provider orders bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which intervention should the nurse implement regarding the use of this safety device?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Attach the restraint straps to the articulating section of the bed frame utilizing a slip knot.

Answer

The nurse should attach the restraint straps to the articulating (movable) section of the bed frame utilizing a slip knot (quick-release knot).
Securing the restraint ties to a movable portion of the bed frame ensures that the restraint moves synchronously with the client when the bed is adjusted, preventing unnecessary pulling, restriction, or injury. A slip knot (quick-release knot) is mandatory because it allows healthcare personnel to detach the restraint immediately in the event of a medical emergency or evacuation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the prescribed intervention.
The client requires non-violent medical restraints due to acute disorientation and the risk of interrupting essential medical therapies.
Understanding the indication determines the specific regulatory protocols and safety measures required for application.
2
Recall the legal and safety standards for restraint application.
Standards dictate that restraints must be tied to a movable part of the bed frame using a quick-release knot, PRN orders are strictly prohibited, and non-violent restraints require removal and assessment at least every 2 hours.
These standards exist to prevent client injury, ensure ethical care, and allow rapid removal in an emergency.
3
Evaluate each option against nursing scope of practice and safety guidelines.
Delegating assessments to assistive personnel is unsafe. PRN orders are prohibited. Waiting four hours for removal is too long. Only attaching the straps to the articulating frame with a slip knot is correct.
This eliminates the incorrect actions based on established evidence-based practice and legal limitations.

Key Concept

Safe Use of Restraints and Safety Devices
Question 3096Question →

A nurse accidentally drops a specimen tube, resulting in a small blood spill on the floor of the clinical utility room. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence for safely cleaning up this biohazardous material.

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Answer

The correct sequence for cleaning up a biohazard spill is to first don protective gloves, absorb the initial spill, discard the soiled materials into a biohazard bag, apply a proper hospital disinfectant, and allow it to sit for the required contact time.
According to OSHA and CDC guidelines for handling biohazardous spills, healthcare workers must first protect themselves by donning gloves. Next, the bulk of the infectious material must be contained and removed using absorbent materials. These materials are immediately disposed of in a biohazard container. Only after the gross contamination is removed should the surface be sprayed with a chemical disinfectant, which must then remain wet for the manufacturer's recommended contact time to ensure complete eradication of bloodborne pathogens.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Put on a pair of clean disposable gloves.
The nurse's hands are protected from bloodborne pathogens.
Standard precautions mandate wearing personal protective equipment before potential exposure to body fluids.
2
Cover the spill with absorbent paper towels or a spill kit powder.
The fluid is contained and fully absorbed.
Absorbing the bulk of the spill prevents the fluid from spreading and makes it safe to lift.
3
Discard the saturated absorbent materials into a designated red biohazard bag.
The infectious gross waste is safely contained.
Blood-soaked items meet the criteria for regulated medical waste and require specific disposal.
4
Apply an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant to the contaminated surface.
The floor surface is chemically treated.
Applying disinfectant directly to the cleaned surface targets any residual microscopic pathogens.
5
Allow the disinfectant to remain on the surface for the required contact time.
The area is completely and safely decontaminated.
Chemical disinfectants need adequate time to effectively eradicate pathogens before the area is wiped or air-dried.

Key Concept

Biohazardous Spill Management
Question 3097Question →

An obstetric triage nurse is admitting a client in the late third trimester of pregnancy who reports a sudden onset of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply an external electronic fetal monitor to assess the fetal heart rate.

Answer

The nurse should apply an external electronic fetal monitor to assess the fetal heart rate.
When a client presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding during the third trimester, placenta previa must be suspected. The nurse's immediate priority is to assess both maternal hemodynamics and fetal well-being. Applying an external electronic fetal monitor is a critical, non-invasive first action to determine if the fetus is becoming hypoxic due to the bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical significance of the client's symptoms.
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester strongly suggests placenta previa.
Recognizing the pathology allows the nurse to anticipate severe risks, such as massive hemorrhage, and rule out contraindicated actions.
2
Determine the safest initial assessment approach.
Invasive procedures (like digital exams) are avoided; instead, external monitoring is utilized.
An external fetal monitor provides immediate, non-invasive data on fetal tolerance to the potential bleeding without risking placental trauma.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for safety and delegation principles.
Supine positioning and delegating initial vital signs to unlicensed personnel are identified as unsafe practices.
Supine positioning causes aortocaval compression, and an RN cannot delegate the initial assessment of a potentially unstable, hemorrhaging client.

Key Concept

Management of Suspected Placenta Previa
Question 3098Question →

An oncology nurse is planning care for four assigned clients after receiving the morning handoff report. Based on the principles of prioritization, arrange the clients in the order the nurse should assess them, from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct order of prioritization is: first, the client with sudden shortness of breath after central line placement; second, the neutropenic client with a new fever; third, the client with severe lower back pain; and fourth, the client with expected chronic findings of terminal lung cancer.
The priority sequence follows the ABC framework and the principle of acute over chronic. The client with a new-onset breathing complication post-procedure (pneumothorax risk) is the most critical. Next is the neutropenic client with a fever, who is at high risk for fatal sepsis. The third priority is the client experiencing severe acute pain, which is distressing but not immediately life-threatening. Finally, the client with terminal lung cancer presents with chronic, expected findings and is the most stable.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the framework for prioritization.
Use the Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) and the acute versus chronic principles.
These frameworks determine which client has the most immediate, life-threatening condition.
2
Evaluate each client for immediate ABC threats.
The client with sudden shortness of breath after a subclavian central venous catheter placement has a potential breathing compromise (pneumothorax).
Airway and breathing are the highest priorities and require immediate life-saving intervention.
3
Evaluate the remaining clients for acute, unstable conditions.
The neutropenic client with a new fever is highly unstable and at risk for rapid progression to septic shock.
Infection in heavily immunocompromised clients is a critical circulatory risk that takes precedence over pain management.
4
Differentiate between acute needs and chronic/expected findings in the final two clients.
The client with severe bone pain requires acute symptom management, while the lung cancer client has expected baseline findings.
Acute, distressing symptoms like severe pain require intervention before evaluating stable clients with chronic conditions.

Key Concept

Establishing priorities involves addressing ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) threats first, followed by highly unstable conditions (such as neutropenic sepsis risk), then urgent symptom management (such as acute pain), and finally chronic or expected findings.
Question 3099Question →

A psychiatric-mental health nurse is conducting an individual session with a 15-year-old client admitted for major depressive disorder. The adolescent reveals that a household member has been physically abusing them. The client becomes highly anxious and states, "Please do not tell anyone. I thought everything we talked about was protected by confidentiality laws." Which action should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Validate the client's feelings while explaining that healthcare professionals are legally mandated to report suspected abuse, which is an exception to confidentiality.

Answer

The nurse must inform the client that suspected abuse must be reported to protective services, as this is a legal exception to confidentiality.
HIPAA and professional nursing standards protect the vast majority of client health information. However, mandatory reporting laws require all healthcare professionals to immediately report suspected abuse or neglect of vulnerable populations (including minors, elders, and dependent adults) to the appropriate state authorities. This legal duty overrides the general rule of confidentiality. The nurse must be honest with the adolescent about the limits of confidentiality rather than making false promises that cannot be legally kept.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's disclosure and age.
The client is a 15-year-old minor who has disclosed physical abuse by a household member.
Identifying the client as a minor triggers specific legal obligations regarding abuse.
2
Recall the legal parameters of confidentiality and HIPAA.
While health information is protected, mandatory reporting of child abuse is a strict legal exception to client confidentiality.
Nurses must know when confidentiality can or must be breached to ensure client safety and legal compliance.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention.
The nurse must report the abuse and honestly inform the client about these limits to confidentiality without making false promises.
Maintaining therapeutic rapport requires honesty, while professional duty requires immediate reporting.

Key Concept

Exceptions to Confidentiality: Mandatory Reporting
Question 3100Question →

An emergency department nurse is developing a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has a severe *Clostridioides difficile* infection and presents with a diffuse, crusted vesicular rash confirmed to be disseminated herpes zoster. Which of the following transmission-based precaution interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Transfer the client to an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative-pressure airflow.; Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water upon exiting the client's room.; Wear a fit-tested N95 respirator, isolation gown, and clean gloves prior to entering the room.

Answer

The correct interventions are transferring the client to a negative-pressure AIIR, washing hands with soap and water upon exiting, and wearing an N95 respirator, gown, and gloves prior to entering.
The client requires a synthesis of Airborne and Contact precautions. A negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) and an N95 respirator are mandatory for the disseminated herpes zoster. Gowns and gloves are required for the contact risks associated with both conditions. Crucially, the presence of C. difficile mandates strict handwashing with soap and water, as alcohol-based sanitizers do not eradicate the spores.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's infectious disease profile.
The client has both disseminated herpes zoster and Clostridioides difficile.
Identifying all active infections is required to determine the cumulative transmission-based precautions needed.
2
Determine the required isolation categories for each pathogen.
Disseminated herpes zoster requires Airborne and Contact precautions. C. difficile requires Contact (Enteric) precautions.
Applying the CDC guidelines ensures comprehensive infection control.
3
Synthesize the precaution requirements into nursing actions.
The client needs a negative-pressure room (Airborne), N95 for staff (Airborne), gown and gloves (Contact), and soap/water hand hygiene (Enteric/C.diff).
Overlapping precaution protocols must all be simultaneously enforced without violating the strictest requirement.
4
Evaluate the distractors related to transport and delegation.
Clients wear surgical masks (not N95s) during transport. Initial assessments cannot be delegated.
Safe environment practice encompasses proper PPE utilization during transport and safe delegation of nursing tasks.

Key Concept

Concurrent implementation of Airborne, Contact, and Enteric precautions, alongside safe delegation principles.
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