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Question 3161Question →

An ambulatory care nurse is evaluating a client in a crowded clinic reception area. The client reports a persistent cough for four weeks, recent episodes of coughing up blood, and drenching night sweats. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes public safety through immediate source control (masking the client), followed by environmental isolation, provider protection (N95), diagnostic testing, and finally, client education.
In any triage setting, infection control follows a strict hierarchy of safety: protect the masses (source control via client masking), isolate the threat (move to negative-pressure room), protect the individual worker (don N95), perform clinical interventions (sputum collection), and finally address psychosocial/educational needs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission risk based on the clinical presentation.
Recognize symptoms (hemoptysis, night sweats, prolonged cough) as highly suspicious for active pulmonary tuberculosis, requiring Airborne Precautions.
Accurate pathogen identification drives the correct selection of infection control protocols.
2
Prioritize source control.
Provide the client with a standard surgical mask.
Placing a standard mask on the infectious source immediately stops the spread of droplet nuclei into the crowded reception area.
3
Establish environmental isolation.
Move the client to a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR).
Removing the client from the public area minimizes exposure risk to other waiting clients and unprotected staff.
4
Protect the healthcare worker.
The nurse dons a fit-tested N95 respirator.
Before entering the AIIR for prolonged contact or assessment, the nurse must protect themselves from airborne transmission.
5
Perform high-risk clinical tasks safely.
Collect the sputum sample for acid-fast bacilli (AFB).
Aerosol-generating procedures or tasks that induce coughing must be done in a controlled environment while wearing an N95 respirator.
6
Provide nursing education.
Explain the isolation protocols to the client.
Education is essential for compliance but must be sequenced after all acute safety and containment measures are established.

Key Concept

Airborne transmission prevention relies on immediate source control followed by environmental isolation.
Question 3162Question →

A nurse answers a telephone call at the unit desk from an individual requesting a medical update on an adult client. Arrange the following actions the nurse should take in the correct sequence to ensure client confidentiality and information security.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first identify the caller, then check the authorized contact list in the EHR, next authenticate the caller using the privacy code, then disclose the information, and finally document the interaction.
Ensuring confidentiality over the telephone requires a systematic approach. The nurse must first identify the caller (name/relationship), then verify authorization (checking the EHR for consent), followed by authentication (requesting the privacy code). Only after these security gates are passed can Protected Health Information (PHI) be disclosed. Finally, all disclosures must be documented to maintain an audit trail.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the caller.
The caller provides their name and relationship to the client.
Establishes who is requesting the information.
2
Check the EHR for authorization.
The nurse confirms the caller is on the approved contact list.
Ensures the client has granted permission for this specific individual to receive updates.
3
Authenticate with a privacy code.
The caller provides the correct alphanumeric code established upon admission.
Verifies that the person on the phone is actually the authorized individual.
4
Provide the medical update.
The nurse shares the requested clinical information.
Fulfills the request safely after security protocols are met.
5
Document the interaction.
A record of the disclosure is created in the client's chart.
Maintains a legal audit trail of who accessed the client's Protected Health Information (PHI).

Key Concept

Telephone Verification and HIPAA Compliance
Question 3163Question →

A 75-year-old client is prescribed prolonged bed rest and has an indwelling urinary catheter in place. The client, who has been previously cooperative and oriented, suddenly becomes severely agitated and repeatedly pulls at the catheter tubing. Which intervention is the most appropriate for the nurse to perform?

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Answer: Inspect the catheter tubing for any kinks or blockages and gently palpate the client's suprapubic area for bladder distention.

Answer

Inspect the catheter tubing for any kinks or blockages and gently palpate the client's suprapubic area for bladder distention.
The correct answer focuses on identifying and resolving the physiological source of the client's distress. In older adults, sudden agitation is frequently a behavioral manifestation of an unmet basic care need, such as pain or a full bladder. Checking the catheter for patency and the bladder for distention addresses the most likely cause of the discomfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's sudden change in behavior.
The client has transitioned rapidly from being cooperative to severely agitated, specifically targeting the urinary catheter.
Sudden behavioral changes in older adults often stem from unmet basic physiological needs or acute, unexpressed physical discomfort.
2
Identify potential sources of physical discomfort related to the client's specific actions.
The client is pulling at the catheter, strongly suggesting localized discomfort in the bladder or urethral area.
A blocked, kinked, or clamped catheter causes urine to accumulate in the bladder, leading to painful distention and severe agitation.
3
Determine the most appropriate basic care nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately assess the equipment for patency and the client's abdomen for a full bladder.
Resolving the physical discomfort by restoring normal urine flow directly addresses the root cause of the agitation.

Key Concept

Recognizing physical discomfort and elimination issues as primary causes of acute agitation in older adults.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3164Question →

A nurse is admitting a client who recently experienced a right-hemisphere stroke, resulting in left-sided hemiplegia and left homonymous hemianopsia. To mitigate the risk of accidental injury and falls, which intervention should the nurse prioritize in the client's care plan?

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Answer: Position the call bell, water pitcher, and personal belongings consistently on the client's right side.

Answer

Positioning the call bell, water pitcher, and personal belongings consistently on the client's right side is the correct priority intervention.
For a client with a right-hemisphere stroke resulting in left-sided hemiplegia and left homonymous hemianopsia, the left side of the body is paralyzed and the left visual field is absent. Placing essential items on the unaffected right side ensures the client can see and reach them safely. If items are placed on the left side, the client may attempt to reach across their body, shift their center of gravity, and accidentally fall out of bed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's neurological deficits based on the right-hemisphere stroke.
The client has left-sided hemiplegia (paralysis on the left side) and left homonymous hemianopsia (blindness in the left half of the visual field of both eyes).
Understanding the specific physical and sensory limitations is necessary to identify environmental hazards.
2
Evaluate how these deficits impact the client's safety and mobility in bed.
The client cannot clearly see objects placed on their left side and lacks the motor function to use their left arm to reach for them.
Reaching blindly across the body with the unaffected arm can alter the client's center of gravity, leading to accidental falls.
3
Select the intervention that best mitigates this specific injury risk.
Placing all essential items on the unaffected (right) side ensures they are within the client's visual field and functional reach.
This environmental modification directly prevents accidental falls and promotes safe independence.

Key Concept

Environmental modifications for clients with hemiplegia and homonymous hemianopsia to prevent accidental injuries.
Question 3165Question →

A 45-year-old client in the intensive care unit is receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). The client becomes acutely delirious and persistently attempts to dislodge the large-bore hemodialysis catheter. After implementing multiple less restrictive alternatives without success, the healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which action by the nurse represents the safest and most appropriate management of this client?

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Answer: Fastening the restraint ties to the bed frame's movable sections using quick-release slip knots and conducting neurovascular assessments at least every 2 hours.

Answer

The nurse should fasten the restraint ties to the bed frame's movable sections using quick-release slip knots and conduct neurovascular assessments at least every 2 hours.
The standard of care for physical restraints dictates that they must be attached to the movable portion of the bed frame (so they move safely with the client when the head of the bed is raised or lowered) using a quick-release knot (slip knot) to allow for rapid removal in an emergency. Additionally, non-behavioral (medical-surgical) restraints require the RN to temporarily release the restraints and perform a comprehensive neurovascular and skin assessment at least every 2 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal and physical safety requirements for attaching restraints.
Identify that restraints must be easily removable in emergencies (using quick-release knots) and must not cause injury if the bed position is adjusted (attaching to the movable frame, never the side rails).
Improper application can lead to severe client injury, strangulation, or delayed release during emergencies like fires or sudden clinical deterioration.
2
Evaluate the ongoing monitoring requirements for non-violent medical restraints.
Determine that the RN must assess skin integrity, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and sensation distal to the restraint at least every 2 hours.
Frequent clinical assessment prevents neurovascular compromise and skin breakdown, which are common and severe complications of restraint use.
3
Assess the delegation boundaries and prescription regulations regarding restraint management.
Recognize that clinical assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP, and PRN prescriptions for restraints are strictly prohibited by CMS and Joint Commission standards.
Only registered nurses possess the clinical judgment required for neurovascular assessment, and strict prescription rules are legally mandated to prevent the overuse and abuse of restraints.

Key Concept

Safe Use of Restraints and Safety Devices
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3166Question →

A nurse is evaluating the electronic fetal monitor tracing of a client in active labor. Which of the following findings indicate a potential complication and require immediate nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Late decelerations occurring consistently after the peak of most contractions; Baseline fetal heart rate of 175 beats per minute over a 20-minute period; Abrupt variable decelerations that drop to 60 beats per minute and last for 70 seconds

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are late decelerations, a baseline heart rate of 175 beats per minute, and abrupt severe variable decelerations.
Late decelerations, fetal tachycardia (heart rate consistently over 160 bpm), and severe variable decelerations are nonreassuring patterns indicating potential fetal compromise, such as hypoxia, infection, or severe umbilical cord compression. These findings necessitate immediate nursing interventions like maternal repositioning, administering oxygen, and notifying the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the baseline fetal heart rate and variability.
A rate of 175 bpm is tachycardia (abnormal), while moderate variability of 10 to 15 bpm is normal.
The normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110-160 bpm with moderate variability. Tachycardia requires intervention.
2
Analyze the presence and timing of any decelerations.
Early decelerations are benign. Late decelerations and severe variable decelerations are abnormal findings.
Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and severe variables indicate significant cord compression; both require immediate action.
3
Assess for the presence of accelerations.
Accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds are present and represent a normal finding.
Accelerations indicate a well-oxygenated fetus with an intact nervous system.

Key Concept

Interpretation of Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) Patterns
Question 3167Question →

A client receiving inpatient palliative care for advanced heart failure is exhibiting significant dyspnea and visible distress. The client's current respiratory rate is 10 breaths per minute. A scheduled dose of intravenous morphine is due. The nurse recognizes that opioid administration carries a risk of further respiratory depression. Which action aligns with the ethical obligations of the nurse in this situation?

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Answer: Administer the intravenous morphine as prescribed to alleviate the client's distressing symptoms.

Answer

Administer the intravenous morphine as prescribed to alleviate the client's distressing symptoms.
In palliative and end-of-life care, the ethical principle of beneficence guides healthcare professionals to prioritize the relief of suffering. The Rule of Double Effect provides ethical justification for administering a medication (like morphine) with the primary intent of alleviating severe dyspnea and pain, even if there is a foreseeable, secondary risk of respiratory depression. Withholding comfort measures in this context violates the client's documented care goals.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's goals of care.
The client is receiving palliative care for advanced heart failure and is experiencing severe distress.
Understanding the care context determines the primary ethical framework.
2
Evaluate the conflict between symptom management and the risk of respiratory depression.
Administering morphine treats the dyspnea but carries a risk of lowering the respiratory rate further.
Identifying competing outcomes is essential for ethical decision-making.
3
Apply the Principle of Double Effect and the ethical duty of beneficence.
The primary intent is to relieve suffering, which is ethically justified even if a secondary, unintended consequence occurs.
Palliative care prioritizes comfort and symptom relief over strict physiological stabilization.

Key Concept

The Principle of Double Effect in palliative care ethically justifies administering interventions intended to relieve severe suffering, even if they carry a foreseeable but unintended risk of hastening death.
Question 3168Question →

An obstetrical client at 3838 weeks gestation is admitted to the unit in active labor. During a vaginal examination, the amniotic membranes spontaneously rupture. The nurse palpates a pulsating, rope-like structure descending through the cervical os, and the fetal monitor abruptly displays a prolonged deceleration to 6565 bpm. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority.

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions for a prolapsed umbilical cord prioritizes immediate relief of cord compression, followed by obtaining help, maternal repositioning, fetal oxygenation, and preparation for delivery.
The correct sequence of actions for a prolapsed umbilical cord prioritizes the immediate physiological needs of the fetus. The nurse must first manually elevate the presenting part to relieve cord compression and restore blood flow. Because the nurse cannot remove their hand, they must simultaneously or immediately after call for assistance. Next, maternal repositioning utilizes gravity to further offload pressure. Oxygen is then administered to maximize fetal oxygenation, and finally, preparations are made for definitive surgical delivery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the obstetric emergency.
Recognition of an umbilical cord prolapse based on the pulsating structure and prolonged fetal heart rate deceleration.
Accurate rapid assessment dictates the subsequent immediate life-saving interventions.
2
Prioritize immediate relief of cord compression.
Applying upward pressure on the fetal presenting part.
The immediate threat to the fetus is asphyxia due to cord compression; offloading the pressure restores fetal blood flow and is the absolute first priority.
3
Activate the emergency response team.
Calling for assistance and notifying the provider.
The nurse must not leave the client or remove the examining hand, so help must be summoned to the room to assist with further interventions and prepare for surgery.
4
Implement adjunctive maternal positioning.
Placing the client in a knee-chest or extreme Trendelenburg position.
Gravity assists in shifting the fetus away from the maternal pelvis, further reducing compression on the umbilical cord.
5
Optimize fetal oxygenation.
Administering high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.
Maximizing maternal blood oxygen concentration helps increase the oxygen delivery to the compromised fetus.
6
Facilitate definitive treatment.
Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth.
A prolapsed umbilical cord is an acute obstetric emergency that almost always necessitates immediate surgical delivery to save the fetus.

Key Concept

Emergency Management of Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Question 3169Question →

A client at 34 weeks of gestation lies flat on her back during a prenatal ultrasound examination. She suddenly reports feeling lightheaded and nauseous, and the nurse observes that her skin is pale and clammy. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

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Answer: Turn the client onto her left side.

Answer

Turn the client onto her left side.
The correct action relieves vena cava compression caused by the weight of the pregnant uterus. Shifting the client to a lateral position immediately restores venous return, cardiac output, and adequate blood pressure, rapidly resolving the symptoms of supine hypotensive syndrome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's symptoms and position.
The client is experiencing lightheadedness, nausea, and pallor while lying supine.
These are classic signs of supine hypotensive syndrome.
2
Determine the underlying physiological cause.
The gravid uterus is compressing the inferior vena cava, decreasing venous return to the heart.
Recognizing the mechanical cause dictates the correct intervention.
3
Select the most direct and effective intervention.
Lateral positioning is chosen as the immediate action.
Shifting the uterus off the major blood vessels immediately restores normal hemodynamics.

Key Concept

Supine hypotensive syndrome and lateral positioning
Question 3170Question →

A nurse is performing a routine physical assessment on a client who had a spontaneous vaginal delivery 1212 hours ago. When evaluating the client's uterine involution, what is the expected physiological finding for the location and tone of the fundus?

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Answer: Firm and located directly at the level of the umbilicus

Answer

The expected normal finding is a firm fundus located at the level of the umbilicus.
At exactly 12 hours postpartum, the normal physiological expectation is for the uterine fundus to be firm, midline, and located approximately at the level of the umbilicus. After this peak, it will typically descend by about one fingerbreadth (1 cm) per day.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the timeframe since the delivery.
The client is 12 hours postpartum.
The expected anatomical location of the uterine fundus changes significantly in the hours and days following birth, making the timeline essential for accurate assessment.
2
Recall the sequential timeline of normal uterine involution.
Immediately after birth, the fundus is midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis. By 12 hours postpartum, it rises to the level of the umbilicus.
Understanding the physiological timeline allows the nurse to differentiate normal expectations from abnormalities like urinary retention or subinvolution.
3
Evaluate the given options against expected normal tone and location for the 12-hour mark.
A firm fundus at the umbilicus perfectly matches the normal expectation for this timeframe.
A firm tone indicates proper contraction necessary to prevent hemorrhage, while deviations or a boggy tone indicate high-priority complications.

Key Concept

Postpartum Uterine Involution
Question 3171Question →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline for the treatment of severe hyponatremia. The client abruptly exhibits profound disorientation, continuously pulling at the intravenous catheter and attempting to climb out of bed. Which intervention should the registered nurse implement first?

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Answer: Initiate continuous one-to-one observation to maintain safety and provide gentle verbal redirection.

Answer

The most appropriate initial intervention is to initiate continuous one-to-one observation to maintain safety and provide gentle verbal redirection.
When a client exhibits acute confusion and behaviors that jeopardize their safety or medical treatment, nursing standards mandate implementing the least restrictive interventions first. Initiating continuous one-to-one observation immediately protects the client from harm, prevents the disruption of the intravenous line, and avoids the legal and physiological risks associated with physical or chemical restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's immediate safety risk.
The client is actively pulling at a critical intravenous line (hypertonic saline) and attempting to get out of bed, posing an imminent risk for injury and treatment failure.
Identifying the severity of the behavior dictates the urgency and type of intervention required.
2
Evaluate potential interventions based on the principle of least restrictive environment.
Before applying physical or chemical restraints, the nurse must attempt and document alternative, less restrictive safety measures.
Standards of care and legal guidelines mandate that restraints are an intervention of last resort.
3
Select the most appropriate initial action.
Providing a dedicated staff member for continuous observation immediately mitigates the safety risk without unlawfully restricting the client's movement.
Direct observation ensures safety while allowing the nurse to further assess the cause of the sudden disorientation.

Key Concept

Prioritizing least restrictive alternatives before utilizing physical or chemical restraints.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3172Question →

A client is hospitalized with a confirmed Clostridioides difficile infection. During the shift, the client is additionally diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse updates the client's care plan to integrate the necessary transmission-based precautions. Which of the following interventions must the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Transfer the client to a single-occupancy airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative-pressure airflow.; Don a fit-tested N95 respirator, a disposable gown, and clean gloves prior to entering the client's room.; Place a standard surgical mask on the client and provide a clean hospital gown during transport for essential testing.

Answer

The correct interventions are transferring the client to a negative-pressure AIIR, donning an N95 respirator along with a gown and gloves before entry, and applying a standard surgical mask and clean hospital gown to the client during transport.
The client requires a combination of Airborne Precautions (for tuberculosis) and Enteric Contact Precautions (for C. difficile). Airborne precautions necessitate placing the client in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) and the use of a fit-tested N95 respirator by healthcare personnel upon entry. Enteric Contact Precautions mandate wearing a gown and gloves when entering the room to prevent transmission of spores. During essential transport, the client acts as the source control; they must wear a standard surgical mask to contain airborne droplets and wear clean clothing or a hospital gown to contain contact pathogens.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify isolation requirements for Clostridioides difficile.
Enteric Contact Precautions are required, mandating a gown, gloves, and soap-and-water hand hygiene.
C. difficile is transmitted via contact and produces spores that are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers.
2
Identify isolation requirements for active pulmonary tuberculosis.
Airborne Precautions are required, mandating a negative-pressure room and an N95 respirator (or PAPR) for staff.
Tuberculosis is transmitted via small airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air.
3
Synthesize the overlapping precautions to create a safe care environment.
The nurse must use a negative-pressure AIIR, don an N95, gown, and gloves prior to entry, and wash hands with soap and water upon exiting.
When a client has multiple infectious diseases, the most rigorous precautions for each transmission route must be combined.
4
Evaluate transport and delegation constraints.
Ensure the client wears a standard surgical mask and a clean gown for transport, and retain all teaching responsibilities.
The client requires source control for the airborne pathogen during transport, and teaching is outside the UAP's scope of practice.

Key Concept

Integrating Overlapping Airborne and Enteric Contact Precautions
Question 3173Question →

A registered nurse is planning care and assigning tasks for a client who is admitted with active pulmonary tuberculosis and requires airborne precautions. Which of the following actions by the healthcare team indicate adherence to appropriate protocols? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: The nurse places the client in a negative-pressure isolation room that exhausts air directly to the outside environment.; The nurse places a standard surgical mask over the client's mouth and nose before transporting them to the radiology department.; The nurse maintains the client's room door securely closed at all times except during personnel entry and exit.

Answer

The appropriate actions are placing the client in a negative-pressure isolation room, applying a standard surgical mask to the client during transport, and keeping the room door securely closed.
Appropriate management of a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires strict adherence to airborne precautions. This includes placing the client in an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) that features negative air pressure and exhausts air directly to the outside environment. The door to this room must remain securely closed at all times to maintain the required pressure gradient. During essential transport, the client must wear a standard surgical mask to effectively contain infectious respiratory secretions at the source.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission route for active pulmonary tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei.
Knowing the precise transmission route dictates the required tier of infection control precautions.
2
Determine the necessary environmental controls and personal protective equipment (PPE) for airborne precautions.
Requirements include a negative-pressure isolation room, keeping the door closed, and staff wearing fit-tested N95 respirators.
These specific measures prevent the escape of airborne pathogens and protect healthcare workers from inhaling suspended particles.
3
Evaluate the protocols for client transport and PPE doffing.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask during transport, and staff must remove their N95 respirators only after exiting the room.
A surgical mask on the client contains infectious secretions. Removing the N95 outside the room ensures the worker does not inhale suspended particles just before leaving.
4
Assess the delegation of tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel.
Educating visitors is identified as a task that cannot be delegated.
Initial and ongoing health education is strictly within the registered nurse's scope of practice.

Key Concept

Airborne precautions require placing the client in a negative-pressure room with the door closed, ensuring staff wear N95 respirators (which must be removed outside the room), and having the client wear a standard surgical mask during transport. Additionally, the registered nurse cannot delegate patient or visitor education to unlicensed personnel.
Question 3174Question →

A severe seismic event causes a catastrophic power outage at a large metropolitan hospital. The primary backup generators fail to engage, resulting in a total loss of power to all electrical systems, including the red emergency receptacles. The charge nurse is managing a respiratory step-down unit where several clients require continuous mechanical ventilation. Which immediate actions should the charge nurse take as part of the disaster response? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assess the remaining internal battery life of all mechanical ventilators and assign staff to monitor those with the lowest charge.; Establish communication with the hospital's Incident Command Center using the unit's emergency two-way radios.; Distribute emergency flashlights to staff and ensure the automated medication dispensing cabinets are manually secured.

Answer

The correct actions are to assess the remaining internal battery life of the ventilators, establish communication using emergency two-way radios, and distribute flashlights while ensuring automated medication dispensing cabinets are manually secured.
During a complete power failure where backup generators fail, the nurse must rely on battery-operated equipment and prioritize safety without causing premature disruption to client care. Assessing the internal batteries of life-support devices allows for strategic allocation of staff before the devices fail. Utilizing emergency two-way radios ensures critical communication with the Incident Command Center when standard systems are down. Distributing flashlights and manually securing medication cabinets maintains a safe environment and prevents unauthorized access to narcotics.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constraints of a total facility power failure.
Standard electrical outlets, red emergency receptacles, electronic communication systems, and electronic locks are rendered completely inoperable.
Understanding the widespread impact of generator failure identifies which systems must be replaced by manual or battery-operated alternatives.
2
Evaluate the management of critical life-support equipment.
Clients on mechanical ventilators should remain connected to their machines while the internal batteries function. Staff must assess these batteries to plan for manual bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation as power depletes.
Prematurely removing a client from a functioning ventilator compromises respiratory status. Utilizing the remaining battery life maximizes resources.
3
Identify necessary safety, communication, and security protocols.
Two-way radios must be used to contact the Incident Command Center. Flashlights must be distributed for safe navigation, and medication cabinets must be manually locked.
Maintaining the chain of command, ensuring physical safety, and preventing medication diversion are standard Emergency Operations Plan mandates during infrastructural collapse.
4
Evaluate distractors regarding delegation and triage.
It is recognized that UAPs cannot independently transport oxygen-dependent clients, and START triage tags are inappropriate for already admitted inpatient populations.
Safety regulations and disaster protocols strictly dictate scope of practice and the correct application of triage methodologies.

Key Concept

Emergency Operations Plan Activation (Internal Disaster / Complete Power Failure)
Question 3175Question →

A nurse accidentally drops and shatters a large glass container of a concentrated chemical disinfectant in the utility room. The fumes are strong, and the liquid is spreading rapidly across the floor. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to ensure safety and properly manage the spill.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing a hazardous chemical spill prioritizes immediate human safety, followed by information gathering, personal protection, and finally, containment and disposal.
When a hazardous chemical spill occurs, the primary goal is accident and injury prevention. The first action must always be to secure the safety of people by evacuating the immediate area and closing the door to prevent fumes from spreading to client care areas. Once the area is isolated, the nurse must consult the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to understand the chemical's specific risks and determine the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE). Only after donning the required PPE should the nurse re-enter the area to contain the spill using a designated spill kit. Finally, the absorbed materials and broken glass must be disposed of in a specialized hazardous waste container, rather than regular trash, to maintain a safe environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evacuate all personnel from the utility room and close the door to isolate the hazard.
Personnel are removed from immediate danger, and fumes are contained.
The highest priority is protecting individuals from acute exposure to fumes and direct contact with the chemical.
2
Consult the facility's Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to determine the chemical properties and required precautions.
The nurse identifies the specific risks and required safety measures.
It is unsafe to attempt cleanup without knowing the exact chemical properties and the necessary protective equipment.
3
Don the specific personal protective equipment (PPE) recommended for this chemical.
The nurse is physically protected from the chemical's hazards.
PPE ensures the nurse does not sustain injury while managing the hazardous material.
4
Apply the absorbent materials from the facility's designated hazardous spill kit over the liquid.
The chemical spill is contained and absorbed.
Designated spill kits safely neutralize or absorb the chemical without creating further hazardous reactions.
5
Place the absorbed chemical and broken glass into a designated hazardous waste receptacle.
The hazard is completely removed from the environment.
Hazardous waste must be disposed of according to facility policy and environmental regulations to prevent secondary injuries.

Key Concept

Prioritization in hazardous materials management dictates that immediate life safety and isolation precede hazard identification, which in turn must precede cleanup efforts.
Question 3176Question →

A client is recovering on the telemetry unit 4 hours after a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery. The client reports a new, mild, dull ache in the lower back but denies chest pain or shortness of breath. The nurse notes the following vital sign trends over the past hour:

TimeBlood PressureHeart RateRespiratory Rate
14:00134/76 mm Hg74 bpm14 breaths/min
14:30128/82 mm Hg86 bpm16 breaths/min
15:00116/88 mm Hg104 bpm22 breaths/min

Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Inspect the right groin insertion site and gently logroll the client to assess the flank.

Answer

Inspect the right groin insertion site and gently logroll the client to assess the flank.
The correct action is to assess the insertion site and flank. The vital sign trends (narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, tachypnea) combined with the new-onset lower back pain are classic signs of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a severe complication of femoral arterial access. The nursing process dictates that assessment must occur first to confirm the source of bleeding so immediate mechanical interventions (e.g., manual pressure) can be applied.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and vital sign trends.
The client has a narrowing pulse pressure (58 to 28 mm Hg), increasing tachycardia, and tachypnea, along with new-onset lower back pain.
Recognizing early compensatory mechanisms of shock is essential for timely intervention.
2
Correlate the findings with the recent procedure (femoral PCI).
The clinical picture strongly suggests a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a known complication of femoral arterial access.
Lower back or flank pain combined with hypovolemic signs post-femoral puncture is the classic presentation of retroperitoneal bleeding.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing action using the nursing process.
Assessment of the puncture site and flank/retroperitoneal area must precede any pharmacological or fluid interventions.
Direct assessment confirms the complication and dictates immediate life-saving actions, such as applying manual pressure.

Key Concept

Early recognition of retroperitoneal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock post-femoral arterial puncture.
Question 3177Question →

A nurse in an emergency department is assessing an older adult client who presents with multiple bruises in various stages of healing on their torso. During a private moment, the client tearfully admits that their adult child caused the injuries. The client pleads, 'Please do not tell anyone; I do not want to cause trouble for my family.' Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Acknowledge the client's fear but explain that healthcare professionals are legally required to report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities.

Answer

The nurse must inform the client that they are legally required to report the suspected abuse to the authorities.
The correct answer accurately reflects that while nurses must generally maintain client confidentiality, mandatory reporting laws for suspected elder abuse represent a strict legal exception. The nurse must validate the client's feelings while transparently explaining the legal obligation to report the abuse to adult protective services or appropriate authorities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario involving an older adult client disclosing physical abuse by a family member.
Identify that this constitutes a situation of suspected elder abuse.
Recognizing the nature of the disclosure determines the legal and ethical obligations of the nurse.
2
Evaluate the client's request for confidentiality against nursing legal standards.
Determine that mandatory reporting laws for elder abuse supersede standard HIPAA and confidentiality protections.
Protecting vulnerable populations from harm is a legal mandate that requires overriding confidentiality when abuse is suspected.
3
Select the intervention that fulfills legal requirements while maintaining a supportive demeanor.
Choose to acknowledge the client's feelings while transparently explaining the legal obligation to report the incident.
This approach preserves therapeutic trust as much as possible while strictly adhering to mandatory reporting laws.

Key Concept

Exceptions to Confidentiality: Mandatory Reporting of Abuse
Question 3178Question →

The nurse receives the shift handoff report for four postpartum clients on the maternal-newborn unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client 6 hours following a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery who reports severe, unrelenting vaginal pressure and rectal pain that is not relieved by prescribed analgesics.

Answer

The client 6 hours following a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery who reports severe, unrelenting vaginal pressure and rectal pain.
Severe, unrelenting vaginal or rectal pressure, especially following an operative vaginal delivery (such as a forceps or vacuum extraction), is a cardinal sign of a developing vaginal or vulvar hematoma. Hematomas involve concealed bleeding into the soft tissues, which can lead to significant blood loss and hypovolemic shock if left untreated. The pain associated with a hematoma is typically disproportionate to the expected postpartum discomfort and is not relieved by standard analgesics. Because this condition represents an acute, unstable, and potentially life-threatening complication, this client requires immediate assessment and intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of each client to differentiate expected postpartum physiological adaptations from potential life-threatening complications.
Identified that clients with moderate lochia, orthostatic hypotension, and a mild temperature elevation are experiencing normal, expected postpartum adaptations.
Prioritization requires identifying the client at the highest risk for physiological instability.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of severe, unrelenting vaginal and rectal pressure.
Recognized this symptom, especially following an operative vaginal delivery, as a hallmark sign of a pelvic hematoma.
A pelvic hematoma causes concealed bleeding into the tissues, which can rapidly lead to hypovolemic shock if unrecognized.
3
Apply prioritization principles to select the client requiring immediate intervention.
Selected the client with the suspected hematoma as the highest priority.
Concealed hemorrhage poses an immediate threat to the client's hemodynamic stability and requires urgent surgical or medical evaluation.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Postpartum Complications: Recognition of Pelvic Hematoma
Question 3179Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a precipitous vaginal delivery. The client reports feeling lightheaded, and the nurse observes that a fresh perineal pad has become entirely saturated with blood within 15 minutes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Firmly massage the uterine fundus to stimulate contraction and minimize bleeding.; Assess the client for a narrowing pulse pressure and mild tachycardia.; Prepare to establish an additional large-bore intravenous (IV) line.

Answer

The nurse should firmly massage the uterine fundus, assess for a narrowing pulse pressure and mild tachycardia, and prepare to establish an additional large-bore IV line.
In the event of a postpartum hemorrhage, the immediate priority is to stop the bleeding, most commonly achieved by massaging a boggy uterus to stimulate contraction. Simultaneously, the nurse must prepare for hemodynamic instability by securing large-bore IV access for rapid fluid or blood administration. Furthermore, the nurse must actively monitor for early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock, such as mild tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure, to intervene before profound hypotension occurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical emergency based on the client's presentation.
The saturation of a perineal pad in 15 minutes combined with lightheadedness indicates active postpartum hemorrhage.
Rapid recognition of excessive blood loss is critical to prevent severe hypovolemia.
2
Prioritize immediate, safe nursing interventions to manage the bleeding and prepare for resuscitation.
Selected actions include fundal massage (to stop bleeding), recognizing early shock signs, and securing large-bore IV access.
These interventions directly address the most likely cause (uterine atony) and prepare the client for potential hemodynamic instability.
3
Eliminate unsafe or inappropriate actions.
Delegating oxygen, ambulating the client, and waiting for late shock signs are rejected.
These actions compromise patient safety, violate delegation principles, or demonstrate a failure to recognize early physiological deterioration.

Key Concept

Postpartum Hemorrhage and Hypovolemic Shock Management
Question 3180Question →

An older adult client admitted with a severe urinary tract infection develops acute confusion and repeatedly grasps at their intravenous (IV) catheter. Which action should the nurse take first to protect the client from injury?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Wrap the IV site loosely in a stockinette bandage and give the client a sensory activity apron.

Answer

The nurse should first attempt to camouflage the IV site and provide a safe distraction, as this represents the least restrictive approach to maintaining client safety.
The correct answer employs the principle of using the least restrictive intervention to maintain safety. Camouflaging the medical device (using a stockinette) and redirecting the client's attention (using an activity apron) are effective, non-invasive restraint alternatives that protect the client from self-injury while preserving their autonomy and dignity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavior and the immediate risk.
The client is experiencing acute confusion and is at high risk for prematurely displacing the IV catheter, leading to injury or interrupted therapy.
Identifying the primary safety threat determines the necessary level of nursing intervention.
2
Evaluate potential interventions based on the principle of least restrictive measures.
Camouflaging the IV line and providing a sensory distraction are identified as the safest, non-invasive initial choices.
Nursing safety standards require exhausting non-restrictive alternatives before applying physical or chemical restraints.
3
Select the option that prioritizes safety without inappropriately delegating nursing assessments or missing acute pathological changes.
Wrapping the IV site and providing an activity apron is chosen over applying physical restraints, delegating assessments to the UAP, or ignoring the acute physiological change.
This action protects the client from self-harm while remaining within the RN's scope of practice and adhering to foundational safety protocols.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention: Restraint Alternatives
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