All practice questions

3881 questions

Question 341Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has bilateral lower extremity weakness from a hospital bed to a wheelchair using a one-person assist technique. Place the following steps in the sequence the nurse should perform them.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence begins with positioning and locking the wheelchair, followed by assisting the client to dangle on the bed edge, applying the transfer belt, assisting the client to stand, and finally pivoting to sit in the wheelchair.
The correct sequence prioritizes environmental safety first by placing and locking the wheelchair in an optimal position. Once the environment is secure, the client is brought to a sitting position to stabilize their blood pressure and establish a firm base of support. Only after the client is safely seated should the transfer belt be applied. Finally, the nurse and client execute a coordinated stand, pivot, and sit maneuver, ensuring the client secures their balance by reaching for the armrests before lowering into the chair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed on the client's stronger side and lock the wheels.
The environment is safe and ready for the transfer.
Locking the brakes prevents the chair from moving out from under the client, and positioning it on the stronger side allows the client to use their intact strength to assist with the pivot.
2
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed and ensure both feet are resting flat on the floor.
The client establishes balance and a stable base of support.
Dangling allows the cardiovascular system to adjust to the position change, preventing orthostatic hypotension, while flat feet provide stability.
3
Apply the transfer belt securely around the client's waist, over their clothing.
The nurse secures a safe handhold for the upcoming lift.
The belt must be applied while the client is seated upright to ensure a snug fit that will not slide up the rib cage during the transfer.
4
Stand facing the client, grasp the transfer belt on both sides, and cue the client to stand on the count of three.
The client is safely assisted to a standing position.
Using a coordinated countdown and proper grips prevents sudden, jerky movements and protects both the client and the nurse from musculoskeletal injury.
5
Pivot with the client toward the wheelchair and instruct them to reach back for the armrests before sitting.
The client is safely seated in the wheelchair.
Reaching back for the armrests ensures the wheelchair is directly behind the client and provides additional upper body support during the descent.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer and Mobility
Question 342Question →

A triage nurse in a community health clinic evaluates a pediatric client presenting with a high fever, cough, coryza, and a widespread maculopapular rash that started on the forehead and is spreading downward. The accompanying caregiver states the child has not received any routine immunizations. Which immediate infection control and safety actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Escort the client and caregiver directly into a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR).; Don a fit-tested N95 respirator or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) before entering the client's room.; Ensure the door to the isolation room remains completely closed except during essential entry and exit.

Answer

The nurse should escort the client into an AIIR, don an N95 or PAPR, and ensure the isolation room door remains closed.
The client's symptoms and vaccination status are a classic presentation of rubeola (measles), a highly contagious viral illness that requires airborne precautions. Appropriate airborne precautions dictate that the client must be immediately isolated in a negative-pressure room (AIIR) to safely vent the air. Furthermore, the door must remain closed to maintain negative pressure, and any healthcare personnel entering the room must wear a fit-tested N95 respirator or PAPR to prevent inhalation of aerosolized viral particles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and history.
The combination of fever, cough, coryza, descending maculopapular rash, and lack of immunizations strongly indicates rubeola (measles).
Accurate pathogen identification dictates the necessary level of transmission-based precautions.
2
Determine the correct isolation category.
Measles requires airborne precautions.
The rubeola virus remains suspended in the air over long distances and extended time periods.
3
Select the appropriate facility and PPE interventions for airborne precautions.
The client needs an AIIR, the door must be kept closed, and staff must wear N95 respirators or PAPRs.
These specific interventions are standard CDC protocols for managing airborne pathogens.
4
Evaluate delegation and patient transport protocols.
Initial assessment cannot be delegated, and clients should wear a standard surgical mask, not an N95, during transport.
Ensuring safe delegation and appropriate patient source control prevents further safety hazards.

Key Concept

Airborne Precautions for Rubeola (Measles)
Question 343Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is 15 minutes into a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. The client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, chills, and a feeling of impending doom. The nurse observes that the client's urine in the Foley catheter tubing has become dark red. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then disconnect the blood tubing, maintain access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, and finally notify the provider and blood bank.
In any severe adverse reaction to a parenteral infusion, especially a blood product, the absolute first priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further harm. Following this, the nurse must ensure the toxic substance is disconnected and secure patent IV access using entirely new tubing and a compatible solution (0.9% sodium chloride). Once the immediate threat of further exposure is mitigated and the airway/circulation is supported with IV access, the nurse gathers assessment data (vital signs) to provide an accurate SBAR report to the healthcare provider and blood bank for further emergency orders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
Further administration of incompatible blood is halted.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (flank pain, chills, hemoglobinuria). The source of the antigen must be eliminated instantly.
2
Disconnect the blood administration set from the client's intravenous catheter.
The blood tubing is completely separated from the client.
This prevents the remaining blood in the IV tubing from entering the client's bloodstream during subsequent interventions.
3
Attach new intravenous tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride and maintain the infusion.
Venous access is maintained with a safe, compatible solution.
Patent IV access is critical for administering emergency medications (e.g., vasopressors, diuretics) and IV fluids to maintain renal perfusion. Flushing the old tubing would push more incompatible cells into the client, which is a lethal error.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Baseline data on the severity of the reaction is obtained.
The nurse needs current hemodynamic and respiratory parameters to accurately communicate the client's status to the healthcare provider.
5
Notify the healthcare provider and the hospital blood bank.
Medical intervention is ordered and the facility's reaction protocol is initiated.
The provider will prescribe treatments to manage shock and preserve renal function. The blood bank must receive the remaining blood and tubing to determine the cause of the incompatibility.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
Question 344Question →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an 80-year-old client who has right-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia following a recent cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote basic care, comfort, and safety? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Utilize a pressure-redistributing mattress and reposition the client at least every 2 hours.; Perform oral hygiene using a moistened sponge swab and gentle suctioning.; Maintain the client in a high Fowler's position during meals and for 30 minutes after eating.

Answer

The correct interventions are utilizing a pressure-redistributing mattress, performing oral hygiene with a sponge swab and suction, and maintaining a high Fowler's position during and after meals.
Clients with hemiplegia and dysphagia require meticulous basic care to prevent life-threatening complications. A pressure-redistributing mattress and frequent repositioning are foundational to prevent skin breakdown in immobile clients. Proper oral hygiene using a moistened sponge swab with gentle suctioning minimizes the aspiration risk while maintaining mucosal integrity. A high Fowler's position (60 to 90 degrees) during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward is essential; it utilizes gravity to facilitate swallowing and significantly reduces the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's physical deficits and risk factors associated with right-sided hemiplegia and dysphagia.
The client is identified as high-risk for pressure injuries, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and aspiration.
Neurological deficits impair mobility, sensation, and the mechanical coordination required for safe swallowing.
2
Select appropriate basic care interventions that address the identified physiological risks.
Interventions must include skin protection (mattress/turning), safe oral care (suction/swabs), and aspiration precautions (high Fowler's positioning).
These evidence-based actions directly mitigate the risks of tissue breakdown and respiratory compromise.
3
Evaluate the remaining options against nursing safety standards and geriatric principles.
Knee pillows, premature UAP delegation for feeding, and fluid restrictions are rejected.
Knee pillows impede venous return, delegating an initial dysphagia feed violates scope of practice, and assuming incontinence is a normal part of aging leads to harmful fluid restriction.

Key Concept

Basic Care, Comfort, and Safety for Stroke Survivors
Question 345Question →

A 68-year-old client is receiving mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit following a coronary artery bypass graft. The client's oxygen saturation drops to 89%, and auscultation reveals coarse crackles over the mainstem bronchi. The nurse prepares to perform open endotracheal suctioning. To reduce the risk of severe hypoxia and mucosal trauma, arrange the following procedural steps in the correct sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence requires the nurse to first hyperoxygenate the client, safely advance the catheter without suction, reposition the tip to protect the carina, apply intermittent suction during withdrawal, and conclude with re-oxygenation and assessment.
Endotracheal suctioning carries significant physiological risks, including profound hypoxemia, cardiac dysrhythmias (often due to vagal stimulation), and mucosal trauma. Proper procedural sequencing mitigates these risks. The nurse must initially hyperoxygenate the client to establish a protective oxygen reserve. Next, the catheter is advanced without suction to avoid unnecessary oxygen depletion and mucosal stripping. Once resistance is met or a cough is stimulated (indicating the catheter has reached the carina), the nurse must pull the catheter back 1 to 2 centimeters to avoid applying direct suction to the sensitive carinal tissue. Suction is then applied intermittently while rotating the catheter during withdrawal, strictly limited to 10 to 15 seconds to prevent dangerous oxygen desaturation. Finally, the nurse provides post-suction hyperoxygenation and assesses the client's clinical response to ensure airway patency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Hyperoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen.
The client's oxygen reserve is maximized prior to the intervention.
Suctioning extracts oxygen along with secretions; pre-oxygenation is critical to prevent dangerous hypoxemia and subsequent cardiac dysrhythmias.
2
Advance the catheter into the artificial airway without applying suction.
The catheter reaches the level of the carina safely.
Applying suction during advancement strips oxygen from the airway prematurely and increases the likelihood of mucosal tearing.
3
Withdraw the catheter 1 to 2 centimeters.
The suction tip is repositioned off the carinal tissue.
Resting the catheter directly on the carina while applying suction causes severe mucosal trauma and can trigger a dangerous vagal response.
4
Apply intermittent suction while rotating and withdrawing.
Airway secretions are effectively cleared from the respiratory tract.
Rotating the catheter prevents it from adhering to one area of the mucosa, and limiting the time to 10-15 seconds mitigates prolonged airway occlusion.
5
Reassess the client and hyperoxygenate.
The client's respiratory status stabilizes.
Post-oxygenation replenishes lost oxygen, and auscultation confirms whether further suctioning is necessary.

Key Concept

To minimize complications such as hypoxemia, dysrhythmias, and mucosal trauma during endotracheal suctioning, strict adherence to evidence-based sequencing—including hyperoxygenation, suction-free insertion, carinal protection, and strict time limits on suction—is required.
Question 346Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client who returned to the neurological unit 30 minutes ago following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following assessment findings or observations require immediate intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client is sitting upright in a high-Fowler's position to eat a meal.; The sterile gauze dressing over the insertion site is saturated with clear fluid.; The client reports a new onset of bilateral lower extremity numbness and weakness.

Answer

The findings that require immediate intervention are the client sitting in a high-Fowler's position, the dressing being saturated with clear fluid, and the client reporting new-onset lower extremity numbness and weakness.
Following a lumbar puncture, the nurse must monitor for physiological complications such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks, spinal hematomas, and positional contraindications. Sitting upright shortly after the procedure increases the risk of a spinal headache due to CSF leakage and requires immediate intervention to return the client to a flat position. A dressing saturated with clear fluid actively indicates a CSF leak, requiring prompt provider notification. New-onset numbness and weakness are signs of spinal cord or nerve root compression (such as from a developing spinal hematoma) and constitute a medical emergency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each finding to distinguish between expected post-procedural outcomes and signs of impending complications.
Identified that mild lower back soreness and lying flat are expected and safe.
A lumbar puncture involves needle insertion into the subarachnoid space, causing expected local soreness. Flat positioning is mandated to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage.
2
Identify findings that indicate a risk for neurological compromise.
Clear fluid on the dressing indicates a CSF leak. Numbness and weakness suggest spinal nerve compression.
A CSF leak can lead to severe spinal headaches and infection. Nerve compression (e.g., from an expanding hematoma) requires urgent evaluation to prevent permanent nerve damage.
3
Assess the client's current positioning for procedural safety.
Sitting upright in a high-Fowler's position immediately after the procedure is identified as a safety risk.
Upright positioning increases pressure on the dural puncture site, which can actively induce a CSF leak and subsequent spinal headache.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Lumbar Puncture Complications
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 347Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has right-sided hemiplegia and severe dysphagia following a recent cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when managing the client's nutritional intake?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Direct small bites of food into the left side of the client's mouth to promote safe swallowing.

Answer

The correct action is to direct small bites of food into the left side of the client's mouth.
The correct action is to place food on the left side of the client's mouth. The client has right-sided hemiplegia, which indicates weakness on the right side of the body and oral cavity. Placing food on the unaffected (stronger) side facilitates effective chewing, improves bolus control, and significantly decreases the risk of aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's specific physiological deficits based on the clinical scenario.
The client has right-sided hemiplegia and severe dysphagia, which means the musculature on the right side of the face and throat is weak and swallowing is compromised.
Understanding the precise anatomical and functional limitations dictates the necessary safety interventions for oral feeding.
2
Evaluate the proposed feeding interventions for safety and anatomical appropriateness.
Placing food on the left side utilizes the intact, stronger musculature on the unaffected side.
Using the strong side of the mouth maximizes chewing efficiency, provides better control of the food bolus, and minimizes the likelihood of aspiration.
3
Assess the remaining options against standards of care for positioning, delegation, and gerontology.
The other options violate principles of safe delegation, correct aspiration-prevention positioning, and the clinical distinction between pathology and normal aging.
The nurse must ensure all interventions align with evidence-based practice for dysphagia management to prevent life-threatening complications.

Key Concept

Dysphagia feeding precautions and aspiration prevention
Question 348Question →

A registered nurse is observing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) provide care for a client who is on enteric contact precautions due to an active *Clostridioides difficile* (*C. difficile*) infection. Which action by the UAP requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cleansing hands with an alcohol-based antiseptic rub immediately after removing gloves.

Answer

The UAP using an alcohol-based hand rub after providing care requires immediate intervention because *C. difficile* spores are not destroyed by alcohol.
The action of cleansing hands with an alcohol-based antiseptic rub requires immediate intervention. *Clostridioides difficile* is a spore-forming bacterium. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not sporicidal and will not eliminate the pathogen from the hands. The nurse must intervene to ensure the UAP washes their hands with soap and water, which mechanically removes the spores down the sink drain.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and the specific isolation precautions required.
The client has *C. difficile*, which requires enteric contact precautions.
Understanding the pathogen's mode of transmission dictates the necessary infection control measures.
2
Evaluate each of the UAP's actions against enteric contact precaution guidelines.
Doffing PPE in the room, using bleach wipes, and bagging linens in the room are all correct procedures. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is incorrect.
To identify which action violates infection control protocols and requires immediate correction.
3
Determine the physiological rationale for the intervention.
*C. difficile* forms hardy spores that must be physically removed from the hands using friction, soap, and water. Alcohol sanitizers do not destroy these spores.
Safe nursing practice requires understanding the clinical rationale behind hand hygiene methods.

Key Concept

Enteric contact precautions specifically require handwashing with soap and water because alcohol-based sanitizers are ineffective against spore-forming organisms like *Clostridioides difficile*.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 349Question →

A nurse is caring for a conscious client with diabetes mellitus who suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and reports feeling shaky. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence follows the 'Rule of 15' for hypoglycemia management: First, check the blood glucose level; second, administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate; third, recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes; and finally, provide a complex carbohydrate and protein snack.
The sequence follows standard physiological adaptation protocols for acute hypoglycemia, known as the 'Rule of 15'. The nurse must first confirm the suspected hypoglycemia with a capillary blood glucose check to ensure safe practice. Once confirmed, 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate is administered because it absorbs rapidly to correct the deficit. The nurse then waits 15 minutes and re-evaluates the blood glucose to confirm the intervention worked. Finally, because simple sugars metabolize quickly, a complex carbohydrate and protein snack is given to stabilize the blood sugar and prevent a rebound hypoglycemic episode.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's current status.
Capillary blood glucose is measured.
Objective data is required to validate the clinical signs of diaphoresis and shakiness.
2
Provide rapid intervention.
15 grams of simple carbohydrates are absorbed quickly.
Fast-acting carbohydrates immediately reverse the acute hypoglycemic state.
3
Evaluate the intervention.
Blood glucose is rechecked after exactly 15 minutes.
Reassessment determines if another 15 grams of carbohydrates is needed or if the crisis has resolved.
4
Stabilize the physiological state.
A complex carbohydrate and protein snack is consumed.
Slower-digesting macronutrients provide sustained glucose release to prevent a secondary crash.

Key Concept

Hypoglycemia Management Protocol (Rule of 15)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 350Question →

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records for four newly admitted clients. Which prescribed parenteral therapy should the nurse question immediately?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: IV labetalol for a client with a hypertensive emergency and a medical history of severe asthma

Answer

The prescription for IV labetalol in a client with a history of severe asthma.
Labetalol is a non-selective beta-blocker that antagonizes both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. While it effectively lowers blood pressure by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart, its beta-2 blockade can trigger severe, potentially fatal bronchoconstriction in clients with a history of asthma. The nurse must question this order immediately and request a cardioselective antihypertensive agent.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the mechanism of action for the prescribed antihypertensive medication.
Labetalol is identified as a non-selective beta-blocker, meaning it antagonizes both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-2 (pulmonary) receptors.
Understanding receptor affinity is essential to predict adverse pharmacological effects.
2
Cross-reference the drug's mechanism with the client's medical history.
The client has a history of severe asthma. Blockade of beta-2 receptors in the lungs prevents bronchodilation and can induce severe bronchospasm.
Identifying absolute contraindications prevents life-threatening iatrogenic complications.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the required nursing intervention.
The therapy poses an immediate, severe risk to the client's airway. The nurse must withhold the medication and question the healthcare provider.
Patient advocacy requires intercepting harmful medication orders and requesting a safe alternative, such as a cardioselective agent.

Key Concept

Non-selective Beta-blocker Contraindications
Question 351Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who has sustained severe bleeding and is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which of the following vital sign changes should the nurse identify as an early indicator of this condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mild tachycardia

Answer

Mild tachycardia is the earliest indicator of compensatory shock.
In the initial (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the decreased blood volume triggers the sympathetic nervous system. This causes the heart rate to increase (tachycardia) as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and ensure adequate tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the body's physiological response to acute blood or fluid loss.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to compensate for decreased intravascular volume.
Understanding the compensatory mechanisms is essential to identifying early clinical signs.
2
Evaluate the given vital sign changes against early compensatory mechanisms.
Tachycardia is recognized as the initial response to maintain cardiac output, whereas hypotension is a late sign.
To accurately differentiate between early and late indicators of clinical deterioration.

Key Concept

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock
Question 352Question →

A nurse is evaluating the continuous electronic fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing of a client in active labor. Which of the following FHR patterns indicate potential fetal compromise and require the nurse to initiate corrective interventions? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recurrent late decelerations occurring with the majority of uterine contractions; A prolonged deceleration dropping below baseline for 4 minutes; A sustained baseline fetal heart rate of 175 beats per minute for 20 minutes

Answer

The correct selections are the options describing recurrent late decelerations, a prolonged deceleration, and a sustained fetal tachycardia of 175 beats per minute.
The correct options represent nonreassuring fetal heart rate patterns. Recurrent late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. A prolonged deceleration (a decrease lasting more than 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes) represents a significant disruption in oxygen transfer. Fetal tachycardia (a baseline greater than 160 beats per minute lasting 10 minutes or longer) can be an early indicator of fetal hypoxemia, maternal infection (such as chorioamnionitis), or dehydration. All three of these abnormal patterns indicate potential fetal compromise and require immediate intrauterine resuscitation, such as maternal repositioning, intravenous fluid bolus, administration of supplemental oxygen, or discontinuation of oxytocin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core objective of the question.
The goal is to differentiate between normal (reassuring) and abnormal (nonreassuring) fetal heart rate patterns that demand nursing intervention.
Safe intrapartum care requires the nurse to promptly recognize and treat signs of fetal hypoxia.
2
Evaluate the reassuring FHR patterns among the choices.
Early decelerations, spontaneous accelerations, and moderate baseline variability are identified as normal findings.
These findings are physiological indicators of a well-oxygenated fetus with an intact central nervous system and do not warrant corrective interventions.
3
Identify the nonreassuring FHR patterns among the choices.
Late decelerations, prolonged decelerations, and fetal tachycardia are identified as nonreassuring findings.
These patterns are associated with compromised fetal oxygen supply (uteroplacental insufficiency, hypoxemia) or maternal/fetal distress (infection, dehydration) and necessitate immediate intrauterine resuscitation measures.

Key Concept

Interpretation of Intrapartum Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) Patterns
Question 353Question →

During a shift, a nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intermittent intravenous (IV) ciprofloxacin to a client. The client has only one peripheral IV catheter, which is currently being used for a continuous IV infusion of pantoprazole. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult a pharmacology reference to verify the Y-site compatibility of pantoprazole and ciprofloxacin.

Answer

The priority action is to consult a pharmacology reference to verify the Y-site compatibility of the two medications.
The correct answer emphasizes that whenever a client is receiving a continuous IV infusion and a new IV medication is prescribed through the same access, the nurse must first verify Y-site compatibility. If medications are incompatible, they can form a precipitate, which can lead to catheter occlusion or a life-threatening embolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the current intravenous setup and the new medication prescription.
The client has a single IV line with a continuous infusion, and a new intermittent medication must be administered simultaneously or sequentially.
Identifying the physical constraints of the IV access is essential for planning safe administration.
2
Recognize the potential risks associated with mixing two intravenous medications.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause precipitation, which may occlude the catheter or result in a systemic embolus.
Understanding the severe consequences of physical or chemical incompatibility highlights the need for strict verification protocols.
3
Determine the required nursing intervention prior to taking any physical action.
The nurse must verify Y-site compatibility using an approved drug reference guide before making any connections.
Ensuring compatibility is a mandatory, non-invasive safety check that dictates all subsequent actions.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral medications requires verifying Y-site compatibility when multiple intravenous drugs share a single access line to prevent adverse reactions such as precipitation.
Question 354Question →

During a shift assessment, a client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is found to be lethargic and responds only to painful stimuli. The client was admitted earlier in the day for an acute respiratory exacerbation and is receiving continuous oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Stat arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.24, PaCO2 of 71 mm Hg, PaO2 of 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 32 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare for the immediate initiation of positive pressure ventilation or endotracheal intubation.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare for the immediate initiation of positive pressure ventilation or endotracheal intubation to address the acute respiratory failure.
The client's clinical presentation of lethargy combined with an ABG showing a pH of 7.24 and a PaCO2 of 71 mm Hg indicates acute respiratory acidosis and carbon dioxide narcosis. This represents impending or actual respiratory failure. Because the client responds only to painful stimuli, they are unable to protect their airway or maintain adequate spontaneous ventilation. The most critical and immediate intervention is to provide ventilatory support through noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (such as BiPAP) or endotracheal intubation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's neurological status and vital signs.
The client is lethargic and responds only to painful stimuli, indicating severe central nervous system depression.
Altered mental status in a client with COPD often points to dangerous carbon dioxide retention (CO2 narcosis).
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
pH 7.24 (acidosis), PaCO2 71 mm Hg (primary respiratory acidosis), HCO3 32 mEq/L (partial metabolic compensation), PaO2 65 mm Hg (mild to moderate hypoxemia).
Understanding the acid-base imbalance confirms that the primary physiological problem is severe hypoventilation leading to acute respiratory acidosis.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client cannot maintain an adequate airway or spontaneous ventilation due to the depressed level of consciousness.
When a client fails to ventilate and protect their airway, advanced mechanical support (BiPAP or intubation) becomes the immediate life-saving priority.

Key Concept

Acute respiratory failure and carbon dioxide narcosis management in COPD
Question 355Question →

A nurse is titrating a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside for a client experiencing a hypertensive emergency. The client weighs 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W). The client's current infusion rate is set at 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. The healthcare provider prescribes an increase in the continuous infusion dose by 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. What is the new infusion pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 28.5

Answer

28.5
The correct new infusion rate is determined by first calculating the requested dose increase based on the client's weight in kilograms. After determining the hourly microgram requirement, the nurse must convert that dose into a fluid volume using the concentration of the supplied medication. Finally, the calculated rate increase must be added to the current infusion rate to determine the new overall pump setting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in kilograms to ensure accuracy.
2
Determine the concentration of the sodium nitroprusside solution in mcg/mL\text{mcg/mL}.
50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
To convert the prescribed dose into a fluid volume, the concentration must be calculated in the same mass unit (micrograms) as the prescription.
3
Calculate the required dose increase in mcg/min\text{mcg/min} and then convert to mcg/hr\text{mcg/hr}.
0.5 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=45 mcg/min0.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 45 \text{ mcg/min}. 45 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2,700 mcg/hr45 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 2,700 \text{ mcg/hr}
This calculation determines the total additional amount of active medication the client needs per hour.
4
Calculate the increase in the infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
2,700 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=13.5 mL/hr2,700 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 13.5 \text{ mL/hr}
This step determines the additional fluid volume needed per hour to deliver the extra dose of medication.
5
Determine the new final infusion rate by adding the calculated volume increase to the current infusion rate.
15 mL/hr+13.5 mL/hr=28.5 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr} + 13.5 \text{ mL/hr} = 28.5 \text{ mL/hr}
The provider prescribed an increase to the ongoing continuous infusion, so the calculated volume must be added to the baseline rate.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous continuous infusion titration calculations
Question 356Question →

A nurse in the obstetrical triage unit has just received a shift report and must prioritize the initial assessments of four pregnant clients. Based on the provided information, which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client at 34 weeks of gestation who presents with severe, continuous abdominal pain and a rigid, board-like abdomen.

Answer

The client at 34 weeks of gestation with severe, continuous abdominal pain and a rigid, board-like abdomen must be assessed first.
The correct answer describes a client exhibiting cardinal signs of abruptio placentae (premature separation of the placenta). A rigid, board-like abdomen and severe, continuous pain are highly indicative of concealed hemorrhage. This is a medical emergency that can rapidly lead to maternal hypovolemic shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and fetal death, making this client the absolute highest priority for assessment and intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each client's clinical presentation to identify potential complications.
Identified conditions: abruptio placentae (severe pain, rigid abdomen), premature rupture of membranes (clear fluid), hyperemesis gravidarum (persistent vomiting), and physiological edema.
Understanding the underlying pathology for each symptom is necessary to determine acuity.
2
Apply the principles of triage and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) to prioritize the clients.
The client with a rigid, board-like abdomen is experiencing internal bleeding (Circulation compromise), which is a critical, life-threatening emergency.
Conditions threatening the ABCs or indicating active hemorrhage always take highest priority over localized, chronic, or physiological issues.

Key Concept

Prioritization in Obstetric Emergencies (Abruptio Placentae)
Question 357Question →

A nurse is educating a client who sustained a right fractured tibia and is prescribed non-weight-bearing status on the affected leg. The client is learning how to ascend a flight of stairs using a three-point crutch gait. Arrange the following instructions in the correct chronological sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence involves establishing a tripod position, shifting weight completely to the crutches, advancing the unaffected leg to the step, transferring weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bringing the crutches and affected leg up to the same step.
When ascending stairs with crutches, the client must first establish a stable base (tripod position) and support their body weight on the crutches. This securely frees the unaffected (strong) leg to be lifted onto the step. Once the strong leg is on the higher step, the client shifts their weight onto it, utilizing the strength of the unaffected leg to elevate the rest of the body. Finally, the crutches and the affected leg are brought up to the same step. This exact sequence follows the fundamental orthopedic principle of 'up with the good'.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical status and the requested procedure.
The client is non-weight-bearing on the right leg and must safely ascend stairs using a three-point gait.
Understanding the weight-bearing status dictates which extremity must support the client's weight during the elevation change.
2
Identify the foundational physiological rule for crutch walking on stairs.
The core rule is 'up with the good, down with the bad'. The unaffected leg always leads when ascending.
This principle ensures the strong leg performs the lifting work against gravity while the affected leg remains protected.
3
Determine the chronological sequence of the physical movements.
Tripod stance -> weight to crutches -> step up with strong leg -> weight to strong leg -> bring up crutches and weak leg.
This specific sequence maintains continuous stability and prevents falls while navigating the stairs.

Key Concept

Assistive Device Ambulation: Three-Point Gait Stair Ascent
Question 358Question →

A nurse is removing a client's central venous access device (CVAD). As the catheter is withdrawn, the client suddenly gasps, reports severe chest pain, and becomes acutely dyspneic. The oxygen saturation drops abruptly to 83%. Suspecting a venous air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the items in the correct sequence from first to last.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for managing a suspected venous air embolism is: 1) Apply an occlusive dressing, 2) Position in left lateral Trendelenburg, 3) Administer 100% oxygen, 4) Activate rapid response, and 5) Monitor and prepare for CPR.
In the event of a venous air embolism, the nurse must act immediately to prevent cardiovascular collapse. The first action is always source control: sealing the entry point (occlusive dressing) to prevent more air from entering. The second immediate action is positioning the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver), which uses gravity to trap the air in the apex of the right ventricle, away from the pulmonary valve. Third, administering 100% oxygen treats hypoxia and shrinks the nitrogen-rich air bubble. Only after these immediate, life-saving nursing actions are taken should the nurse leave the client's side to call the rapid response team and continue monitoring for cardiac arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Apply a sterile occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
Stops further entry of air into the venous system.
During inspiration, negative intrathoracic pressure can draw significant amounts of room air into an open central venous tract. Source control is the paramount first step.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air embolism in the right ventricle.
This specific positioning (Durant's maneuver) utilizes buoyancy. It keeps the air bubble away from the pulmonary valve, maintaining blood flow and preventing cardiovascular collapse.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Treats severe hypoxia and shrinks the air bubble.
Room air is primarily nitrogen. Providing 100% oxygen creates a concentration gradient that pulls nitrogen out of the air bubble and into the bloodstream to be exhaled, reducing the bubble's size.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Secures advanced medical intervention.
After immediate life-saving nursing actions are completed, emergency medical support is required for further stabilization and potential diagnostic procedures.
5
Continuously monitor vital signs and prepare for resuscitation.
Ensures readiness for acute decompensation.
The client is at extreme risk for obstructive shock and cardiac arrest. Continuous monitoring allows for immediate recognition of deterioration.

Key Concept

Venous Air Embolism Emergency Management (Durant's Maneuver)
Question 359Question →

At exactly 5 minutes after birth, a transition nurse completes a physiological assessment on a newly delivered term infant. The nurse documents an apical heart rate of 96 beats per minute. The infant is exhibiting a weak, gasping cry. When the soles of the feet are gently flicked, the infant responds with a slight grimace but no active withdrawal. The infant's muscle tone reveals flaccid extremities. The skin color is centrally pink with noticeably blue hands and feet.

What is the infant's 5-minute Apgar score?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 4

Answer

The infant's 5-minute Apgar score is 4.
The Apgar score is a standardized method of evaluating a newborn's transition to extrauterine life across five criteria (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration), with each graded from 0 to 2. Based on the clinical data provided, the heart rate of 96 bpm earns 1 point, the weak cry earns 1 point, the grimace without withdrawal earns 1 point, the flaccid tone earns 0 points, and the acrocyanosis earns 1 point, resulting in a total score of 4 out of 10. This score indicates moderate distress requiring intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the Pulse (Heart Rate)
1 point
An apical heart rate of 96 beats per minute falls below the 100 bpm threshold, which earns 1 point. (Absent is 0, >100 is 2).
2
Evaluate the Respiration (Respiratory Effort)
1 point
A weak, gasping cry indicates slow or irregular respiratory effort, which earns 1 point. (Absent is 0, vigorous cry is 2).
3
Evaluate the Grimace (Reflex Irritability)
1 point
A slight grimace in response to tactile stimulation (flicking the soles) without active withdrawal earns 1 point. (No response is 0, active cry/withdrawal is 2).
4
Evaluate the Activity (Muscle Tone)
0 points
Flaccid or limp extremities indicate an absence of muscle tone, earning 0 points. (Some flexion is 1, active motion is 2).
5
Evaluate the Appearance (Skin Color)
1 point
A centrally pink body with noticeably blue hands and feet is known as acrocyanosis, which earns 1 point. (Completely blue/pale is 0, completely pink is 2).
6
Calculate the total score
4
Summing the five assessment criteria: 1 (Pulse) + 1 (Respiration) + 1 (Grimace) + 0 (Activity) + 1 (Appearance) = 4.

Key Concept

Apgar Scoring System Assessment and Interpretation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 360Question →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with a sudden onset of high fever, nuchal rigidity, photophobia, and a petechial rash. A lumbar puncture is performed, and preliminary cerebrospinal fluid results strongly suggest *Neisseria meningitidis*. Which of the following infection control interventions are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place a standard surgical mask on the client if transport outside the room is necessary for diagnostic imaging.; Maintain transmission-based precautions until exactly 24 hours of targeted, effective antibiotic therapy have been completed.; Wear a face shield and protective gown when performing tasks likely to generate splashes of blood or body fluids.

Answer

The appropriate interventions are placing a surgical mask on the client during transport, maintaining precautions for 24 hours after antibiotics are started, and wearing a face shield and gown for splash-risk procedures.
The client is infected with Neisseria meningitidis, which requires Droplet Precautions. The appropriate interventions include placing a surgical mask on the client during transport to prevent droplet spread, maintaining these precautions until the client has received 24 hours of effective antibiotics (after which they are no longer contagious), and applying Standard Precautions (such as face shields and gowns) during any procedure that might generate splashes of bodily fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and the required isolation category based on the clinical presentation.
The client has a suspected infection of Neisseria meningitidis, which is transmitted via large respiratory droplets and requires Droplet Precautions.
Proper pathogen identification dictates the specific transmission-based precautions needed to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
2
Determine the appropriate room assignment and personal protective equipment (PPE) for Droplet Precautions.
A standard private room is required, and healthcare workers must wear a standard surgical mask. Negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators are not indicated.
Droplets travel only short distances (usually 3 feet or less) and do not remain suspended in the air, meaning airborne-level protections are unnecessary.
3
Identify guidelines for client transport and the discontinuation of isolation precautions.
The client should wear a surgical mask if they must leave the room. Precautions can be discontinued 24 hours after initiating effective antibiotic therapy.
Containment at the source (the client) prevents environmental contamination, and the pathogen burden drops significantly after 24 hours of effective antimicrobial treatment.
4
Evaluate the proposed delegation and basic care principles.
Teaching visitors about PPE cannot be delegated to a UAP. Standard precautions for splashes apply universally.
Registered nurses retain the responsibility for all initial patient and family education, while standard precautions are a baseline requirement for all client interactions.

Key Concept

Droplet Precautions and Standard Precautions for Meningococcal Meningitis
PreviousPage 18 / 195Next
All practice questions — NCLEX-RN | Examkin