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Question 21Question →

Following a diagnostic spinal tap, a client is transported back to the clinical unit. The client is alert and reports a dull ache near the lumbar insertion site. To promote client comfort and minimize the risk of procedural complications, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Answer: Ensure the client remains resting in a completely flat, horizontal position for the prescribed duration.

Answer

Ensure the client remains resting in a completely flat, horizontal position for the prescribed duration.
After a lumbar puncture, placing the client in a flat, supine posture is the standard evidence-based intervention. This position equalizes pressure in the central nervous system, drastically reducing the loss of cerebrospinal fluid through the puncture site and thereby preventing a post-dural puncture headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure the client just underwent and its common complications.
The client had a diagnostic spinal tap (lumbar puncture), which carries a high risk of a post-dural puncture headache due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
Understanding the procedural risks dictates the appropriate basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Determine the optimal positioning to prevent this complication.
A flat, supine posture is required to equalize pressure and allow the dural puncture site to seal.
Positioning is a primary independent nursing intervention to promote comfort and prevent post-procedure injury.
3
Evaluate the distractors against the correct nursing action and scope of practice.
Elevating the head or maintaining a fetal position is contraindicated post-procedure. Furthermore, assessing a dressing cannot be delegated.
Safe nursing practice requires selecting the most appropriate evidence-based intervention while adhering to delegation rules.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Comfort
Question 22Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. Initially, the client was tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, and the initial arterial blood gas (ABG) revealed a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 72 mm Hg. Two hours after receiving continuous nebulized bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids, the client remains diaphoretic, is using accessory muscles to breathe, and has significantly diminished breath sounds bilaterally. A repeat ABG shows a pH of 7.38, PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 64 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of the client's condition and the priority nursing action?

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Answer: The client is demonstrating respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure; prepare for immediate airway management and intubation.

Answer

The client is demonstrating respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure; prepare for immediate airway management and intubation.
During an acute asthma exacerbation, clients typically hyperventilate to overcome airway resistance, resulting in a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis). If the client continues to exhibit severe distress (accessory muscle use, diaphoresis) and significantly diminished breath sounds (suggesting very little air movement), a PaCO2 that normalizes or rises is an ominous sign. It indicates that the client's respiratory muscles are fatigued, and they are losing the ability to ventilate adequately. This signifies impending respiratory failure, and the priority nursing action is to prepare for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation to secure the airway and support breathing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is diaphoretic, using accessory muscles, and has diminished breath sounds.
Clinical signs provide critical context for interpreting diagnostic data. Diminished breath sounds in an asthma exacerbation indicate severely restricted airflow.
2
Interpret the initial and repeat ABG results.
Initial ABG showed respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2) from hyperventilation. The repeat ABG shows a 'normal' pH and PaCO2, but worsening hypoxemia (lower PaO2).
Comparing trends is essential. In a patient struggling to breathe, a normalizing PaCO2 is a paradoxical finding.
3
Synthesize the clinical and laboratory findings to determine the priority.
The combination of severe respiratory distress and a normalizing PaCO2 means the client can no longer maintain the work of breathing. Impending respiratory failure is occurring.
Recognizing that a 'normal' PaCO2 in the setting of severe asthma is a danger sign ensures timely life-saving interventions.

Key Concept

In severe asthma, a normalizing or elevated PaCO2 combined with continued respiratory distress indicates respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure, requiring immediate intubation.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 23Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the client reports sudden chills, severe lower back pain, and shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is to stop the transfusion first, maintain IV access with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally send the remaining blood and tubing to the blood bank.
In any emergency where a therapeutic intervention causes severe harm (such as a hemolytic transfusion reaction), the absolute first priority is to stop the offending agent. Once stopped, preserving IV access with normal saline and new tubing ensures a route for emergency medications without infusing residual blood. The nurse must then assess the client to gather necessary clinical data before notifying the healthcare provider. Administrative tasks, such as returning the blood bag to the laboratory, are performed only after the client is physiologically stabilized and primary interventions are complete.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The infusion of potentially incompatible blood is halted.
This is the most critical first step to minimize the amount of antigen entering the bloodstream, directly reducing the risk of a severe or fatal hemolytic reaction.
2
Infuse normal saline through new IV tubing.
Intravenous access is maintained without infusing residual blood.
The client will likely need emergency medications. New tubing is crucial because flushing the old tubing would push the remaining incompatible blood into the client.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Objective clinical data regarding hemodynamic and respiratory stability is gathered.
The nurse must know the client's current status before calling the provider to ensure appropriate emergency orders can be given.
4
Notify the primary healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The medical team is informed and the facility's transfusion reaction protocol is initiated.
The provider must prescribe emergency interventions based on the assessment, and the blood bank must prepare for an investigation.
5
Send the remaining blood product and tubing to the blood bank.
The physical evidence of the reaction is transported for analysis.
This allows the laboratory to retype and crossmatch the blood and test for hemolysis, which is a post-stabilization priority.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
Question 24Question →

An older adult client with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted for acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and requires continuous bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). The client becomes intensely agitated, repeatedly attempting to remove the BiPAP mask and grasp at an indwelling arterial line. The healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints and PRN intravenous lorazepam for severe agitation. Which intervention should the nurse implement to best maintain client safety?

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Answer: Place padded mitts on the client's hands and initiate continuous one-to-one observation with a trained sitter.

Answer

Place padded mitts on the client's hands and initiate continuous one-to-one observation with a trained sitter.
The correct answer emphasizes using the least restrictive alternative (padded mitts) combined with continuous observation (1:1 sitter). This approach prevents the client from grasping critical life-support devices without utilizing dangerous sedatives or restrictive limb ties that could exacerbate the respiratory failure by increasing metabolic demand and agitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's primary physiological risk.
The client is in acute hypercapnic respiratory failure; any intervention that depresses respiratory drive (like lorazepam) or increases metabolic demand (like fighting limb restraints) is a critical life threat.
Airway and breathing must be prioritized over managing the agitation.
2
Evaluate the safety interventions available.
The options are chemical restraints, physical limb restraints, improper delegation of monitoring, or less restrictive physical alternatives (mitts) with direct observation.
Nurses are required to use the least restrictive restraint alternative that ensures safety.
3
Select the safest, least restrictive intervention that protects the medical devices.
Applying padded mitts and utilizing a 1:1 sitter protects the BiPAP mask and arterial line without depressing the respiratory drive or unlawfully delegating assessments.
This strategy addresses the immediate physical threat (device removal) while honoring safety protocols regarding restraint escalation and scope of practice.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention: Restraint Alternatives and Prioritization
Question 25Question →

A client is admitted to the inpatient medical unit with severe abdominal cramping and frequent watery stools. Laboratory results confirm an active Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which of the following infection control measures should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Perform hand hygiene using soap and water after providing client care.; Don a protective gown and clean gloves prior to entering the client's room.; Ensure dedicated medical equipment, such as a stethoscope and blood pressure cuff, remains in the client's room.

Answer

The correct measures include performing hand hygiene with soap and water, donning a gown and gloves before entering the room, and using dedicated medical equipment.
Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) requires strict contact precautions because it is easily spread through direct contact with the client or contaminated surfaces. These precautions mandate wearing a gown and gloves upon entering the room and dedicating medical equipment to the client to prevent cross-contamination. Uniquely, because C. diff forms highly resilient spores that are unaffected by alcohol-based hand rubs, healthcare personnel must rigorously perform hand hygiene using soap and water to mechanically wash the spores away.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and its mode of transmission.
The pathogen is Clostridioides difficile, which is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and forms highly resilient spores.
Understanding the pathogen dictates the specific tier of isolation precautions required.
2
Determine the appropriate transmission-based precautions.
Contact precautions must be initiated.
Contact precautions protect healthcare workers and other clients from pathogens spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or their environment.
3
Identify specific environmental and hygiene interventions unique to this pathogen.
Soap and water must be used instead of alcohol rub, and dedicated equipment should remain in the room.
Alcohol-based sanitizers do not kill C. diff spores, so mechanical friction with soap and water is necessary.

Key Concept

Contact Precautions for Clostridioides difficile
Question 26Question →

A critically ill client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum potassium level of 2.82.8 mEq/L. The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of 2020 mEq potassium chloride (KCl) in 100100 mL of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to be administered over 11 hour. The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC) in the right internal jugular vein. A continuous regular insulin infusion is actively running through the distal lumen. Which of the following actions should the nurse take regarding the potassium chloride administration? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administer the solution through the proximal CVC lumen using an electronic infusion pump.; Verify that the client has produced at least 3030 mL/hr of urine before initiating the infusion.; Ensure the client is connected to a continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor during the infusion.; Aspirate the proximal CVC lumen for a brisk blood return prior to starting the infusion.

Answer

The correct actions include administering the solution through the available proximal lumen using an electronic pump, verifying adequate urine output, ensuring continuous ECG monitoring, and aspirating for a blood return.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that requires strict adherence to safety protocols. Because the prescribed rate (2020 mEq/hr) exceeds the standard peripheral limit (1010 mEq/hr), continuous ECG monitoring is mandatory to detect potential cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse must also verify renal function (urine output of at least 3030 mL/hr) to ensure the client can excrete the potassium and avoid hyperkalemia. Furthermore, since potassium is a severe tissue irritant and vesicant, central line patency must be confirmed by aspirating for a brisk blood return before infusion. Finally, an electronic infusion pump is always required to guarantee precise delivery and prevent an accidental rapid bolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescription and the client's current intravenous access.
The client requires a high-concentration potassium infusion (2020 mEq/hr) and has an available dedicated lumen on a central venous catheter.
Determining the rate and route is essential for identifying the required safety protocols for high-alert medications.
2
Identify the mandatory safety parameters for high-dose intravenous potassium.
Administration requires an electronic volumetric pump, continuous ECG monitoring (due to the rate >10> 10 mEq/hr), and verification of renal function (urine output ≥30\geq 30 mL/hr).
Potassium is primarily excreted by the kidneys and rapid administration can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
3
Evaluate central line administration and medication compatibility principles.
The available proximal lumen should be used after confirming patency via blood aspiration. Connecting to the insulin line without checking compatibility is unsafe.
Potassium is a vesicant that can cause tissue necrosis if extravasated, and manipulating continuous high-alert infusions (like insulin) should be avoided.

Key Concept

Safe Administration of Parenteral Potassium Chloride and Central Line Management
Question 27Question →

A nurse receives the shift report for a group of assigned clients on a medical-surgical trauma unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate assessment and intervention?

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Answer: A client with blunt abdominal trauma whose heart rate has steadily increased from 82 to 114 beats per minute over the past hour.

Answer

The client with blunt abdominal trauma and a steadily increasing heart rate requires immediate assessment.
The correct answer describes a client exhibiting a classic early sign of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia) following blunt abdominal trauma. The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate to maintain cardiac output as blood volume decreases from internal hemorrhage. This is a life-threatening physiological crisis requiring immediate intervention to stabilize the client's circulation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical data for the client with blunt abdominal trauma.
The heart rate has increased significantly from 82 to 114 beats per minute, which is a cardinal early sign of compensatory shock.
Trauma clients are at high risk for covert internal bleeding, such as a splenic or hepatic laceration.
2
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) for the client with COPD.
A pH of 7.36 (normal), PaCO2 of 54 (high), and HCO3 of 30 (high) indicates a fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
Recognizing chronic baseline compensation prevents the nurse from mistaking a stable chronic condition for an acute respiratory emergency.
3
Assess the positioning of the post-cardiac catheterization client.
The client is flat and supine, which is the medically prescribed position to prevent femoral artery bleeding.
Correct positioning confirms the client's current status is safe and expected.
4
Compare all clients to determine the highest priority based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The trauma client with progressive tachycardia has an acute circulation threat, making them the absolute highest priority.
Prioritization requires identifying acute, life-threatening changes over expected or stable chronic findings.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Acute Physiological Decompensation over Expected Chronic Findings
Question 28Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache. Upon assessment, the nurse notes profuse diaphoresis on the client's face and neck, severe facial flushing, a blood pressure of 218/114 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 52 beats/min. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter in place. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority, from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions for managing autonomic dysreflexia is: elevate the head of the bed, loosen restrictive clothing, assess the urinary catheter for kinks, administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication if symptoms persist, and finally document the event.
In autonomic dysreflexia, a massive uncompensated cardiovascular reaction occurs mediated by the sympathetic nervous system. The immediate priority is to lower the blood pressure to prevent a stroke, which is achieved first by utilizing gravity (elevating the head of the bed). Following this immediate safety measure, the nurse systematically removes potential triggers, starting with quick external checks (loosening clothing) and then checking the most common internal cause (bladder distention). Medical intervention with antihypertensives follows if these steps fail, and administrative tasks like documentation always come last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a sitting or high Fowler's position.
Induces orthostatic hypotension.
This is the most rapid way to lower the blood pressure and prevent a catastrophic complication like a stroke.
2
Loosen any constrictive clothing or devices.
Removes superficial noxious stimuli.
Tight clothing can act as a trigger for the exaggerated sympathetic response.
3
Assess the urinary system by checking the indwelling catheter for kinks.
Identifies and resolves potential bladder distention.
Bladder distention is the leading cause of autonomic dysreflexia. Restoring urine flow removes the primary noxious stimulus.
4
Administer a rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacologically reduces blood pressure.
This is indicated if conservative measures (removing stimuli) fail to resolve the hypertensive crisis.
5
Document the event and response.
Creates a formal clinical record.
Documentation is essential but must be deferred until the life-threatening crisis is managed.

Key Concept

Management of Autonomic Dysreflexia (Hyperreflexia)
Question 29Question →

An interdisciplinary team is conducting rounds on a medical-surgical unit housing clients with various infectious diseases. Which of the following observed practices indicate correct adherence to transmission-based precautions? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Wearing a standard surgical mask when measuring the blood pressure of a client diagnosed with pertussis.; Placing a standard surgical mask on a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis during transport to the radiology department.; Donning a gown and clean gloves prior to entering the room of a client with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) wound infection.

Answer

The correct practices are wearing a surgical mask for pertussis, placing a standard mask on a client with tuberculosis during transport, and donning a gown and gloves before entering an MRSA room.
Appropriate transmission-based precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infectious agents. Pertussis requires droplet precautions, meaning healthcare workers must wear a standard surgical mask when in close contact. For clients with airborne infections like pulmonary tuberculosis, a standard surgical mask must be placed on the client during transport to trap their respiratory secretions. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) requires contact precautions; thus, entering the client's room requires donning a gown and gloves to prevent cross-contamination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission and required isolation tier for each pathogen mentioned.
Pertussis (Droplet), Norovirus (Enteric Contact), Tuberculosis (Airborne), Varicella (Airborne/Contact), MRSA (Contact), and Neisseria meningitidis (Droplet).
Correct PPE and environmental controls are dictated by the specific transmission route of the organism.
2
Evaluate the personal protective equipment (PPE) utilized by the staff for the specific pathogens.
Using a surgical mask for pertussis and gown/gloves for MRSA align with CDC guidelines. However, removing an N95 inside an airborne room violates protocols.
Staff PPE must intercept the pathogen correctly; airborne pathogens require respirators to be worn until fully outside the room.
3
Assess the interventions related to client management and environmental control.
Masking a client with tuberculosis during transport is correct. Using alcohol rub for norovirus and cohorting different types of meningitis are unsafe practices.
Alcohol does not efficiently kill enteric viruses like norovirus, and mixing different pathogens risks nosocomial cross-infection.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Question 30Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted 12 hours ago with severe acute pancreatitis. The client's current assessment reveals pale, diaphoretic skin and a total urine output of 25 mL over the past two hours. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg, heart rate 136 beats/min, and respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 15 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Infuse a prescribed rapid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The correct action is to rapidly infuse isotonic fluids to treat the underlying hypovolemic shock caused by third-spacing.
The client is experiencing severe hypovolemic shock as a result of massive retroperitoneal fluid shifts (third-spacing) characteristic of severe acute pancreatitis. The hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and resulting lactic acidosis (demonstrated by the ABG values) require immediate intravascular volume expansion. Isotonic crystalloid infusion is the primary life-saving action to restore perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical assessment data.
The client exhibits severe hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and diaphoresis, which are classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to severe third-spacing common in acute pancreatitis.
Identifying the primary physiological derangement dictates the urgency and type of intervention required.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical picture.
The ABG shows a metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (low PaCO2). This is lactic acidosis resulting from inadequate cellular perfusion.
Understanding the etiology of the acid-base imbalance prevents inappropriate interventions that only treat the lab values.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention using the ABCs and principles of shock management.
Restoring intravascular circulating volume (Circulation) with isotonic fluids is the definitive first-line treatment to reverse the hypoperfusion and correct the secondary acidosis.
Without adequate fluid volume, other interventions (like vasopressors) are ineffective and potentially harmful.

Key Concept

Management of hypovolemic shock and third-spacing in acute pancreatitis
Question 31Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client who was intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation 22 hours ago for acute respiratory failure. Current assessment findings include a heart rate of 132132 bpm, blood pressure of 86/5286/52 mm Hg, and cool, pale extremities. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.267.26, PaCO2PaCO_2 6262 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 2525 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 5858 mm Hg. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following clinical judgments and nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Answer: Analyze the arterial blood gas values as indicative of an uncompensated acid-base imbalance of respiratory origin.; Recognize the vital signs and peripheral assessment findings as clinical indicators of a shock state.

Answer

The correct clinical judgments are concluding that the ABG demonstrates an uncompensated acidotic state of respiratory origin and recognizing the vital signs as indicators of a shock state.
The arterial blood gas results show a pH less than 7.357.35 and a PaCO2PaCO_2 greater than 4545 mm Hg, which indicates an acidotic state of respiratory origin. Because the bicarbonate (HCO3−HCO_3^-) level is within the normal range of 22−2622-26 mEq/L, there is no metabolic compensation. Furthermore, the combination of tachycardia, hypotension, and cool, pale extremities strongly indicates inadequate tissue perfusion and compensatory vasoconstriction, which are classic early signs of a shock state.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.267.26 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 6262 mm Hg (respiratory origin), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 2525 mEq/L (normal, indicating it is uncompensated).
To determine the client's acid-base status and evaluate the effectiveness of the mechanical ventilation.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic parameters and physical assessment findings.
Heart rate is 132132 bpm, blood pressure is 86/5286/52 mm Hg, and extremities are cool and pale.
To identify signs of inadequate tissue perfusion or impending cardiovascular collapse.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine appropriate clinical conclusions and interventions.
The client has an uncompensated respiratory acid-base imbalance and is exhibiting signs of a shock state.
To prioritize care and avoid harmful interventions, such as elevating the head of the bed during severe hypotension.

Key Concept

Early recognition of shock and accurate interpretation of uncompensated acid-base imbalances are critical for prioritizing interventions and preventing hemodynamic collapse in mechanically ventilated clients.
Question 32Question →

A nurse assumes care for a client with severe Crohn's disease who is malnourished and receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client's current vital signs are stable, and the continuous infusion is running on an electronic pump. Which of the following nursing actions must be included in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels at regular intervals of every 4 to 6 hours.; Replace the parenteral nutrition administration tubing and inline filter every 24 hours.; Verify the specific macronutrient and micronutrient ingredients on the dispensed solution label against the provider's prescription.

Answer

The correct actions are to monitor capillary blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, replace the administration tubing and filter every 24 hours, and verify the specific ingredients on the label against the provider's prescription.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a complex, high-alert therapy requiring meticulous nursing management. Because TPN solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, clients are at significant risk for therapy-induced blood glucose fluctuations; therefore, routine capillary blood glucose monitoring every 4 to 6 hours is essential. The high glucose and lipid content also creates an ideal medium for bacterial growth, necessitating the strict replacement of the entire administration set and inline filter every 24 hours. Furthermore, due to the highly customized nature of the solution, the nurse must meticulously verify all specific macro- and micronutrients on the bag's label against the original prescription to prevent critical compounding errors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed therapy and its associated risks.
The client is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) via a central line, which carries significant metabolic, infectious, and compatibility risks.
Recognizing the high-alert nature of TPN guides the prioritization of safety protocols.
2
Evaluate the correct options based on TPN standards of care.
Monitoring blood glucose, verifying exact ingredients, and changing tubing every 24 hours are standard safety protocols.
These specific actions mitigate the inherent risks of hyperglycemia, medication compounding errors, and central line-associated bloodstream infections.
3
Identify and exclude the incorrect nursing actions.
Delegating the site assessment, mixing medications in the line, and increasing the rate to catch up are identified as unsafe.
These actions directly violate delegation guidelines, intravenous compatibility rules, and critical fluid/electrolyte safety limits.

Key Concept

Parenteral Nutrition Administration and Monitoring
Question 33Question →

The registered nurse (RN) is managing care delivery on an acute neurovascular step-down unit. Which task assignment demonstrates adherence to the principles of safe delegation?

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Answer: Instructing the UAP to apply bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a client who is completely immobile following a severe hemorrhagic stroke.

Answer

The correct delegation is instructing the UAP to apply bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the immobile client.
The correct answer identifies a task that is standard, routine, and carries a predictable outcome. While the client has a serious condition (hemorrhagic stroke), applying SCDs does not require ongoing clinical judgment, making it a perfectly safe and appropriate task to delegate to a UAP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical stability and required assessment for the client reporting sudden dizziness.
Sudden dizziness indicates a potential acute neurological change. The client is unstable.
An unstable client with new symptoms requires an RN assessment before any tasks are delegated (Right Circumstance).
2
Analyze the airway risk for the client needing oral hygiene with an absent gag reflex.
The absent gag reflex presents a severe aspiration risk, requiring continuous clinical judgment during oral care.
Tasks requiring nursing judgment, airway protection, and assessment cannot be delegated to a UAP (Right Task).
3
Determine if reinforcing physical therapy instructions falls within the UAP scope of practice.
Teaching and reinforcing education are beyond the scope of practice for a UAP.
The nursing process, including client education, cannot be delegated to unlicensed personnel (Right Task).
4
Assess the complexity of applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to an immobile client.
Applying SCDs is a routine, standard procedure with predictable outcomes that does not require independent nursing judgment.
Even if a client has a severe underlying diagnosis, routine, non-invasive tasks can safely be delegated to a UAP.

Key Concept

The Five Rights of Delegation (Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right Person, Right Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision)
Question 34Question →

A registered nurse (RN) on a neurology step-down unit is assigning tasks for the upcoming shift. The nursing team includes the RN, a licensed practical nurse (LPN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following tasks are appropriate for the RN to delegate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning the UAP to reposition a bedbound client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings; Assigning the LPN to administer scheduled oral antiepileptic medications to a client who had an ischemic stroke three days ago; Instructing the UAP to empty and document the fluid volume in a closed-wound surgical drainage device

Answer

The RN can safely delegate repositioning a stable client and documenting drainage volume to the UAP, and administering oral medications to a stable client to the LPN.
Delegating routine care such as repositioning a client and documenting drainage volume is appropriate for a UAP because these tasks do not require nursing judgment. Assigning an LPN to administer scheduled oral medications to a client who is clinically stable (three days post-stroke) is also safe and aligns directly with their authorized scope of practice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each task to determine if it involves initial assessment, clinical judgment, or initial teaching.
Tasks involving swallow screens, developing teaching plans, and formulating care plans require RN judgment and cannot be delegated.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) strictly prohibits delegating assessment, teaching, and evaluation to LPNs or UAPs.
2
Determine the appropriate scope of practice for the UAP in the remaining tasks.
Repositioning a client and emptying/documenting drainage are routine tasks safely delegated to a UAP.
UAPs are trained to assist with activities of daily living and basic data collection.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice for the LPN in the remaining tasks.
Administering scheduled oral medications to a stable, three-day post-stroke client is an appropriate LPN task.
LPNs are licensed to administer routine oral medications to clients with predictable outcomes.

Key Concept

The RN must retain tasks requiring clinical judgment, comprehensive assessment, and initial teaching, while delegating routine, predictable tasks to LPNs or UAPs based on their established scopes of practice.
Question 35Question →

The nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client. Arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the client, then lubricate the tubing, insert the tubing into the rectum, elevate the container to the correct height, and finally unclamp the tubing to instill the solution.
The chronological sequence prioritizes client safety and procedural efficacy. First, the client must be anatomically positioned to receive the fluid. Next, the equipment is prepared for insertion by lubricating the tip. The tube is then carefully inserted into the rectum. After placement is secured, the container is elevated to create the correct hydrostatic pressure before unclamping the flow.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assist the client into the left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed.
The client's descending colon is positioned lower than the rectum.
This utilizes gravity to help the enema solution flow deeper into the colon.
2
Lubricate the distal 2 to 3 inches (5 to 7.5 cm) of the enema tubing.
The tip of the tube becomes slick.
Lubrication reduces friction, preventing mucosal injury during insertion.
3
Direct the tubing toward the umbilicus and gently insert it 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm).
The tube enters the rectum without meeting resistance.
This angle follows the anatomical curvature of the lower bowel, ensuring safe and effective placement.
4
Elevate the enema container 12 to 18 inches (30 to 45 cm) above the client's anus.
Hydrostatic pressure is established.
This height provides a safe flow rate. Holding it higher could cause rapid instillation and painful cramping.
5
Unclamp the tubing to allow the solution to flow slowly into the rectum.
The solution enters the bowel.
This initiates the therapeutic intervention once all safety measures are in place.

Key Concept

Safe administration of a large-volume enema requires a systematic approach prioritizing anatomical alignment, prevention of tissue trauma, and controlled fluid pressure.
Question 36Question →

While receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), a client suddenly develops a high fever. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose of intravenous ceftriaxone. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the antibiotic.

Answer

The correct action is to establish a new, separate peripheral intravenous catheter for the administration of the antibiotic to maintain the dedicated TPN line.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, amino acids, and potentially lipids, making them highly incompatible with most medications. Additionally, the high glucose content makes the TPN line a prime site for bacterial growth. Evidence-based practice mandates that TPN must be infused through a dedicated line. Therefore, establishing a separate peripheral IV access is required to administer the prescribed antibiotic safely without interrupting or compromising the TPN line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current intravenous therapy and access.
The client has a single-lumen PICC line currently infusing TPN.
Assessing current access determines if it can be safely used for newly prescribed medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and safety guidelines for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strictly dedicated line and cannot be mixed or paused for other medications.
The high dextrose and amino acid content in TPN creates a high risk for drug precipitation and bacterial growth.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the newly prescribed intravenous antibiotic.
A new peripheral IV site must be established.
This preserves the dedicated TPN line while ensuring the client receives the necessary medication promptly.

Key Concept

Safe administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Question 37Question →

A registered nurse (RN) enters a preoperative staging area to witness the surgical consent signature for a 65-year-old client scheduled for a pacemaker insertion. The client's spouse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are present. The RN notes the client is acutely lethargic and disoriented, which the spouse reports began shortly after the client received a preoperative dose of intravenous midazolam. The surgeon is waiting to proceed and requests the RN to witness the signature immediately so the surgical schedule is not delayed. Which actions by the RN are appropriate in this situation? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Intervene to halt the signing process, as the recent administration of a sedative temporarily impairs the client's legal capacity.; Verify the medical record to determine if the spouse is the legally designated healthcare surrogate.; Ensure the surgeon has discussed the procedural risks, benefits, and alternatives with the authorized surrogate.

Answer

The nurse should halt the signing process due to the client's impaired capacity from sedation, verify if the spouse is the designated surrogate, and ensure the surgeon informs the surrogate.
Informed consent requires the client to be competent and acting voluntarily. A client who has received a preoperative sedative like midazolam lacks the legal capacity to sign. The nurse must act as an advocate by halting the process, verifying if the spouse is the legally designated surrogate, and ensuring the surgeon fulfills their duty to explain the risks and benefits to that surrogate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's capacity to give legal consent.
The client is found to be acutely lethargic and disoriented after receiving intravenous midazolam.
Clients who have received central nervous system depressants or sedating medications are legally considered incompetent to provide valid informed consent.
2
Intervene to prevent the client from signing the document.
The consent process is immediately halted despite the surgeon's request to proceed.
The RN acts as a client advocate to protect the client's legal rights and prevent an invalid consent from being executed.
3
Identify an authorized surrogate decision-maker.
The RN checks the medical record for advance directives or a medical power of attorney.
When a client temporarily lacks capacity, informed consent must be obtained from their legally designated healthcare proxy or surrogate.
4
Verify that the provider has properly informed the surrogate.
The RN ensures the surgeon discusses the procedure with the designated surrogate prior to signature.
The provider is legally responsible for explaining the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the person providing consent.

Key Concept

The registered nurse acts as a client advocate during the informed consent process by assessing cognitive capacity, preventing signatures under the influence of sedatives, and ensuring the provider obtains consent from a legally authorized surrogate.
Question 38Question →

A registered nurse on a medical-surgical unit receives the morning handoff report for four assigned clients. In which order should the nurse assess these clients? Arrange the clients from highest priority (first) to lowest priority (last).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes the airway threat (myasthenia gravis), followed by the acute circulation threat (heparin bleeding), then the expected abnormal systemic finding (heart failure), and finally the expected localized chronic symptom (ulcerative colitis).
The prioritization follows the ABCs and the acute vs. chronic framework. The client with myasthenia gravis has a new, acute threat to their airway (bulbar weakness), making them the highest priority. The client with spontaneous bleeding on a heparin drip represents an acute circulation threat and is the second priority. The client with heart failure has abnormal but expected findings (crackles, elevated BNP) for their condition, placing them third. The client with ulcerative colitis has expected symptoms (bloody stools) without life-threatening systemic compromise, making them the lowest priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clients for imminent life-threatening airway or breathing conditions.
The client with myasthenia gravis has difficulty swallowing and a weak cough, indicating a potential loss of airway.
Airway takes the highest priority in the ABCs triage framework.
2
Identify acute circulation or hemorrhagic risks among the remaining clients.
The client with a heparin infusion is experiencing spontaneous epistaxis.
Circulatory collapse from active bleeding is the next highest priority after airway and breathing issues are addressed.
3
Differentiate between acute, unexpected findings and expected disease manifestations for the remaining clients.
Both the heart failure client and the ulcerative colitis client are experiencing expected manifestations of their admitted diagnoses.
Expected findings take a lower priority than acute, unstable, or unexpected physiological changes.
4
Prioritize between the remaining stable clients based on physiological impact.
The heart failure client's fluid overload is a systemic cardiopulmonary issue, whereas the ulcerative colitis client's symptom is localized and highly typical for the disease process.
Systemic cardiopulmonary issues generally require closer monitoring and precedence over localized, stable chronic symptoms.

Key Concept

Prioritizing client care using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and Acute vs. Chronic frameworks.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 39Question →

A client is preparing for discharge following a 4-week hospitalization for severe Guillain-Barré syndrome. While the client's respiratory function is now stable, they exhibit significant residual weakness in their intrinsic hand muscles, preventing them from grasping eating utensils or manipulating buttons on clothing. The client's spouse expresses feeling overwhelmed about managing these daily care tasks at home and states, 'I do not know how we will afford all the special tools the doctor said we might need.' Which interdisciplinary collaboration action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult the occupational therapist to train the spouse in adaptive self-care techniques and the medical social worker to identify community financial resources.

Answer

The correct action is to consult the occupational therapist to train the spouse in adaptive self-care techniques and the medical social worker to identify community financial resources.
The correct answer accurately identifies the distinct scopes of practice required for this client's specific deficits. The occupational therapist (OT) specializes in fine motor skills, upper extremity function, and adapting activities of daily living (ADLs) such as eating and dressing. The medical social worker (MSW) is the appropriate team member to evaluate financial constraints, coordinate community resources, and assist with acquiring affordable medical equipment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has fine motor deficits preventing them from grasping utensils or buttoning clothes, and the caregiver has severe financial anxieties regarding medical equipment.
Identifying specific needs dictates which interdisciplinary team members should be consulted.
2
Match the clinical deficits to the appropriate allied health scopes of practice.
Fine motor skills and activities of daily living (ADL) adaptations fall within the scope of occupational therapy, not physical therapy.
Proper interprofessional collaboration requires accurate knowledge of each team member's expertise.
3
Address the psychosocial and financial concerns.
The medical social worker is the optimal referral for navigating insurance, finances, and community assistance programs.
Holistic care requires addressing both physical and psychosocial barriers to a safe discharge.
4
Evaluate the distractor actions for safety and communication errors.
Delegating teaching to a UAP is unsafe and outside their scope, and offering unverified financial promises is non-therapeutic false reassurance.
Safe and effective care environments mandate appropriate delegation and therapeutic communication.

Key Concept

Interdisciplinary collaboration requires the registered nurse to accurately identify client needs and match them to the distinct scopes of practice of allied health professionals, while maintaining safe delegation and therapeutic communication boundaries.
Question 40Question →

A registered nurse (RN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are working together on a nephrology unit. Which of the following client care activities is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to the UAP?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recording the volume of urine emptied from an indwelling catheter collection bag for a client with acute kidney injury.

Answer

Recording the volume of urine emptied from an indwelling catheter collection bag for a client with acute kidney injury.
Measuring and recording intake and output, including emptying indwelling catheter bags, is a routine and predictable task that does not require independent nursing judgment. Therefore, it is safely within the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), regardless of the client's diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of practice for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Identify that UAPs can perform routine, standard, and predictable tasks for stable clients, but cannot perform tasks requiring nursing judgment, assessment, teaching, or evaluation (the 'EAT' acronym).
This establishes the criteria for safe delegation.
2
Evaluate each provided task against the UAP scope of practice.
Determine that palpating a fistula requires assessment, explaining fluid restriction requires teaching, and taking initial post-procedure vital signs requires assessment and clinical judgment for a potentially unstable client.
This eliminates inappropriate tasks based on the established delegation criteria.
3
Identify the task that falls within the UAP's capabilities.
Select the task of measuring and recording urine output from a catheter.
This is a routine, predictable task that does not require independent nursing judgment, even if the client has an acute condition.

Key Concept

Delegation of tasks to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)
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