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Question 701Question →

While providing care for an individual hospitalized with a severe renal infection, the nurse notes a sudden increase in restlessness. Assessment reveals that the client's skin is unexpectedly warm and visibly flushed. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.8∘C38.8^\circ\text{C} (101.8∘F101.8^\circ\text{F}), a heart rate of 124124 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 2626 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 84/4884/48 mm Hg. The previous blood pressure recorded two hours ago was 116/72116/72 mm Hg. Which intervention must the nurse execute immediately?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid intravenous bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.

Answer

Initiate a rapid intravenous bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client is demonstrating classic signs of the early, hyperdynamic phase of septic shock (warm flushed skin, tachycardia, tachypnea, and a significant drop in blood pressure). According to the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, the immediate life-threatening issue is circulatory collapse due to massive vasodilation. The highest priority is to rapidly restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion using an isotonic crystalloid fluid bolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's current clinical state based on the assessment data.
The client is experiencing the early, hyperdynamic phase of septic shock.
The combination of an active infection source, tachycardia, tachypnea, profound new-onset hypotension, and unexpectedly warm/flushed skin points directly to early sepsis.
2
Determine the highest priority need using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
Circulation is severely compromised, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation.
Massive systemic vasodilation in septic shock causes relative hypovolemia. Rapid fluid administration is the life-saving priority to restore tissue perfusion before secondary interventions.

Key Concept

Early Septic Shock Recognition and Fluid Resuscitation
Question 702Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a left-sided partial nephrectomy four hours ago. Over the past two hours, the client's heart rate has increased from 84 to 110 beats per minute, blood pressure has narrowed from 134/76 to 108/82 mm Hg, and urine output has decreased to 20 mL over the last hour. The client reports mild incisional pain. Which action should the nurse perform next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Inspect the dependent flank area and surgical dressing for pooling blood.

Answer

The nurse should first inspect the dependent flank area and surgical dressing for pooling blood.
The client is demonstrating early signs of compensatory hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, narrowing pulse pressure, and decreased urine output), which is a critical risk following a highly vascular procedure like a partial nephrectomy. Because the kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space, post-operative hemorrhage often pools dependently in the flank area or back rather than immediately saturating the anterior surgical dressing. The nurse's immediate priority is to assess for the source of bleeding to gather accurate clinical data before notifying the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends and physiological data.
The client exhibits newly onset tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure (from 58 to 26 mm Hg), and oliguria.
These findings represent early, compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock rather than isolated incisional pain.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the surgical procedure.
The client had a partial nephrectomy, a highly vascular procedure in the retroperitoneal space.
Post-operative hemorrhage is a major complication, and blood may pool dependently in the flank area without showing on the anterior surgical dressing.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing action.
The nurse must gather direct assessment data regarding the bleeding source before notifying the provider or implementing other treatments.
Applying the nursing process requires assessment prior to intervention, especially to prevent complications related to risk potential.

Key Concept

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and prioritization of focused post-operative assessments.
Question 703Question →

An adult client with advanced hepatic cirrhosis has just been transferred back to the medical-surgical unit after a therapeutic paracentesis that removed 4.5 liters of ascitic fluid. To minimize the risk of severe physiological decompensation, which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's immediate plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion over the next several hours.; Assess the client closely for a narrowing pulse pressure, restlessness, and an increasing heart rate.; Inspect the abdominal puncture site frequently for evidence of continuous fluid leakage or bleeding.

Answer

The correct actions are to administer the prescribed intravenous albumin, closely assess for early signs of hypovolemic shock (such as narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia), and frequently inspect the puncture site for bleeding or leakage.
Removing large amounts of ascitic fluid rapidly decreases abdominal pressure, causing blood vessels to suddenly expand and fluid to shift out of the intravascular space. This places the client at a severe risk for hypovolemic shock. Administering albumin replaces oncotic pressure to hold fluid in the vessels. Monitoring for a narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia allows the nurse to catch shock in its early compensatory phase. Checking the puncture site ensures that the client is not actively bleeding or losing further fluid.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and its physiological impact.
The client had a large-volume paracentesis (4.5 liters), which significantly rapidly decreases intra-abdominal pressure.
Understanding the rapid fluid shift helps anticipate potential systemic complications.
2
Identify the primary risks associated with this rapid fluid shift.
The main risks are profound hypotension, hypovolemic shock, and fluid leaking out of the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity.
Identifying the risks allows the nurse to select interventions that directly mitigate them.
3
Evaluate the nursing actions against the identified risks.
Administering albumin prevents fluid shifts. Monitoring vital signs detects early shock. Checking the site prevents bleeding complications. Conversely, Trendelenburg positioning impairs breathing, delegating to a UAP is unsafe for unstable clients, and dismissing tachycardia ignores early shock indicators.
This confirms which interventions are safe and effective, and which are contraindicated.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Hemodynamic Monitoring and Complication Prevention
Question 704Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) through a dedicated single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous ceftriaxone to treat a newly diagnosed infection. The client currently has no other intravenous access. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the ceftriaxone.

Answer

The nurse must insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the ceftriaxone because the Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) line must remain strictly dedicated.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a complex, hypertonic solution that must be administered through a dedicated central line lumen. This protocol prevents dangerous drug incompatibilities (such as calcium in the TPN precipitating with ceftriaxone) and minimizes the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI). Because the client only has a single-lumen central catheter, the nurse must establish new peripheral intravenous access to administer the urgent antibiotic safely and effectively without disrupting the TPN.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current intravenous access and infusions.
The client has a single-lumen PICC dedicated solely to a continuous TPN infusion, and a stat dose of an intravenous antibiotic is required.
Understanding the current access limitations is necessary to determine the safest route for new medications.
2
Evaluate the compatibility and protocols regarding TPN administration.
TPN requires a strict, dedicated line. It cannot be paused abruptly without risking rebound hypoglycemia, and it cannot be mixed with medications like ceftriaxone due to severe incompatibility issues (e.g., calcium precipitation).
Applying pharmacological safety principles prevents life-threatening adverse events like emboli or severe hypoglycemic episodes.
3
Determine the most appropriate nursing intervention to safely administer the prescribed medication.
The nurse must obtain a new access site by inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter to give the stat antibiotic promptly.
This ensures the client receives timely treatment for the infection while maintaining the integrity and safety of the TPN infusion.

Key Concept

Total Parenteral Nutrition requires a strictly dedicated intravenous line and must never be abruptly paused or mixed with other medications.
Question 705Question →

A client admitted with cardiogenic shock requires hemodynamic support. The primary healthcare provider orders a dopamine infusion at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 85 kg85\text{ kg}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed intravenous bag containing dopamine 400 mg400\text{ mg} in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W).

At what rate should the electronic infusion pump be programmed? (Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15.9

Answer

15.9
To accurately program the electronic infusion pump, the nurse must process multiple conversions: finding the total weight-based dose per minute (5×85=425 mcg/min5 \times 85 = 425\text{ mcg/min}), expanding that to an hourly dose (425×60=25,500 mcg/hr425 \times 60 = 25,500\text{ mcg/hr}), matching the dose unit to the dispensed medication by converting to milligrams (25,500÷1,000=25.5 mg/hr25,500 \div 1,000 = 25.5\text{ mg/hr}), and finally dividing by the IV fluid concentration (400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 1.6\text{ mg/mL}). Dividing 25.5 mg/hr25.5\text{ mg/hr} by 1.6 mg/mL1.6\text{ mg/mL} yields 15.9375 mL/hr15.9375\text{ mL/hr}, which correctly rounds to 15.9 mL/hr15.9\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total dose required per minute in micrograms.
5 mcg/kg/min×85 kg=425 mcg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 85\text{ kg} = 425\text{ mcg/min}
The prescription is weight-based, so the per-kilogram dose must be multiplied by the client's total body weight.
2
Convert the per-minute dosage to an hourly dosage.
425 mcg/min×60 min/hr=25,500 mcg/hr425\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 25,500\text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour (mL/hr), so the total medication needed per hour must be determined.
3
Convert the hourly dosage from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
25,500 mcg÷1,000 mcg/mg=25.5 mg/hr25,500\text{ mcg} \div 1,000\text{ mcg/mg} = 25.5\text{ mg/hr}
The available dopamine bag is measured in milligrams, so the requested dose must match the unit of the supplied medication.
4
Determine the concentration of the available intravenous solution.
400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 1.6\text{ mg/mL}
Finding the amount of medication in a single milliliter allows for direct calculation of the required fluid volume.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr and round to the nearest tenth.
25.5 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=15.9375 mL/hr25.5\text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6\text{ mg/mL} = 15.9375\text{ mL/hr}. Rounded to the nearest tenth is 15.9 mL/hr15.9\text{ mL/hr}.
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the required pump rate.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Continuous Intravenous Medication Calculations
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 706Question →

An orthopedic unit nurse is caring for a client who sustained a long bone fracture of the right leg yesterday. The client abruptly exhibits extreme restlessness and complains of shortness of breath. The nurse observes new-onset pinpoint red spots on the client's upper chest. The vital signs show a heart rate of 122 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals pH=7.52pH = 7.52, PaCO2=26 mm Hg\text{PaCO}_2 = 26 \text{ mm Hg}, and PaO2=52 mm Hg\text{PaO}_2 = 52 \text{ mm Hg}. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply a high-concentration oxygen delivery device.

Answer

Apply a high-concentration oxygen delivery device.
The client's presentation of a recent long bone fracture, respiratory distress, sudden agitation, and chest petechiae represents the classic clinical triad of Fat Embolism Syndrome. The ABG results demonstrate uncompensated respiratory alkalosis driven by severe hypoxemia. The absolute priority is to treat the life-threatening lack of oxygen by applying a high-concentration oxygen delivery device, which directly addresses the root cause of the client's physiological decompensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The combination of a recent long bone fracture, sudden restlessness, respiratory distress, and chest petechiae strongly indicates Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES).
Recognizing this specific, life-threatening complication guides the prioritization of emergency interventions.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH=7.52pH = 7.52, low PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2) combined with severe hypoxemia (PaO2=52 mm Hg\text{PaO}_2 = 52 \text{ mm Hg}).
The severe hypoxemia is driving the client's tachypnea, which in turn causes the respiratory alkalosis by blowing off carbon dioxide.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Addressing the profound hypoxemia with high-flow oxygen takes precedence over correcting the acid-base imbalance or providing symptomatic relief.
According to the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework, resolving severe hypoxemia is the most immediate life-saving action.

Key Concept

Fat Embolism Syndrome and Hypoxemia Prioritization
Question 707Question →

A client is resting in a medical-surgical bed two hours after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. Upon responding to the call light, the nurse finds the client reporting a sudden increase in right upper quadrant pain. Which of the following assessment findings strongly suggest the client is developing early compensatory hemorrhagic shock? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An unexplained onset of restlessness and anxiety; The development of a narrowed pulse pressure; An increase in resting heart rate to 118118 beats/minute

Answer

The assessment findings that indicate early compensatory hemorrhagic shock are an unexplained onset of restlessness and anxiety, the development of a narrowed pulse pressure, and an increase in resting heart rate.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hemorrhagic shock, the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion despite volume loss. This is achieved through sympathetic nervous system stimulation, which increases the heart rate and causes peripheral vasoconstriction, leading to a narrowed pulse pressure. Additionally, subtle decreases in cerebral oxygenation manifest earliest as restlessness, anxiety, or agitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's risk factors.
The client had a highly vascular procedure (liver biopsy) and is now experiencing increased localized pain, placing them at high risk for internal bleeding and hemorrhagic shock.
Identifying the primary complication risk directs the focus of the physical assessment.
2
Identify the physiological responses during the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain perfusion. This leads to increased heart rate (tachycardia), increased respiratory rate (tachypnea), peripheral vasoconstriction (narrowed pulse pressure, cool skin), and altered mentation due to mild cerebral hypoxia (restlessness).
Understanding compensatory mechanisms allows for the differentiation of early shock signs from normal findings or other types of shock.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected signs of early hemorrhagic shock.
Restlessness, narrowed pulse pressure, and tachycardia align directly with the compensatory physiological response. Warm skin and a decreased respiratory rate contradict the expected physiological response to blood loss.
Systematic evaluation ensures only accurate clinical indicators of the specific shock state are selected.

Key Concept

Early recognition of hemorrhagic shock relies on identifying compensatory mechanisms: tachycardia, narrowed pulse pressure, tachypnea, and early neurological changes like restlessness, rather than waiting for a profound drop in systolic blood pressure.
Question 708Question →

A nurse is establishing a plan of care for a client who has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. To minimize the client's risk of severe post-procedure complications, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a small towel roll placed directly under the puncture site.

Answer

The nurse should position the client in a right lateral decubitus position with a small towel roll placed directly under the puncture site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at a high risk for internal hemorrhage because the liver is a highly vascular organ. Placing the client in a right lateral decubitus (side-lying) position with a small towel or pillow directly under the puncture site applies essential mechanical pressure (tamponade) to the liver capsule. This action promotes hemostasis and significantly reduces the risk of life-threatening bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risk associated with the specific procedure.
A percutaneous liver biopsy carries a high risk of internal hemorrhage due to the liver's extensive vascular network.
Understanding the most likely and dangerous complication dictates the priority nursing interventions.
2
Determine the physical mechanism needed to mitigate this risk.
Direct mechanical pressure must be applied to the liver capsule at the puncture site to promote hemostasis (blood clotting).
The liver is located on the right side of the abdomen, so external pressure requires specific patient positioning.
3
Select the nursing action that accurately applies this mechanism while adhering to safe practice standards.
Placing the client on their right side (right lateral decubitus) over a small towel roll achieves the necessary tamponade effect.
This is the established standard of care to reduce bleeding risk immediately following a liver biopsy.

Key Concept

Post-procedure risk reduction and positioning for liver biopsy
Question 709Question →

While monitoring a client undergoing a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion, the nurse observes the client suddenly shivering. The client reports intense bilateral flank pain and dyspnea. Current vital signs indicate a temperature of 38.6∘C38.6^\circ\text{C} (101.5∘F101.5^\circ\text{F}), a heart rate of 122 beats/min122\text{ beats/min}, and a blood pressure of 86/52 mmHg86/52\text{ mmHg}. After immediately halting the transfusion, what is the nurse's next priority action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disconnect the blood administration set and initiate an infusion of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride with new tubing.

Answer

Disconnect the blood administration set and initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride with new tubing.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, including severe flank pain, fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. After immediately stopping the transfusion, the nurse must maintain intravenous access to support blood pressure and facilitate the administration of emergency medications. This is safely accomplished by attaching completely new intravenous tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride. Using new tubing ensures that the remaining incompatible blood in the old tubing is not inadvertently flushed into the client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the clinical signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Identify that flank pain, chills, tachycardia, and hypotension signify a severe, life-threatening reaction.
Incompatible blood causes rapid hemolysis, leading to systemic inflammation, acute renal compromise, and shock.
2
Determine the physiological requirements after stopping the blood.
Identify the immediate need to support blood pressure and maintain venous access.
The client is hypotensive and will require emergency fluid resuscitation to maintain organ perfusion.
3
Select the safest method to provide intravenous fluids.
Choose to replace the entire blood administration set with completely new tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Reusing the existing tubing would forcefully push the remaining incompatible packed red blood cells into the client's bloodstream.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 710Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer intravenous (IV) phenytoin to a client who recently experienced status epilepticus. Which actions should the nurse include in the plan of care to ensure safe parenteral administration? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Flush the intravenous catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after the medication is given.; Ensure the intravenous administration rate does not exceed 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min}.; Monitor the client's blood pressure and electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm continuously during the infusion.

Answer

The correct actions are to flush the IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, limit the administration rate to a maximum of 50 mg/min, and continuously monitor the client's blood pressure and ECG.
Intravenous phenytoin is a high-alert medication that requires strict adherence to safety protocols. It is highly alkaline and only compatible with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline); mixing it with other solutions like dextrose causes immediate precipitation. The line must be flushed with normal saline before and after the infusion. Because rapid administration can precipitate severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias, the infusion rate must never exceed 50 mg/min50\text{ mg/min} in adults, and the client requires continuous hemodynamic and electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring throughout the procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pharmacological properties and compatibility of intravenous phenytoin.
Phenytoin is highly alkaline, irritating to veins, and precipitates easily when mixed with non-saline solutions.
Understanding compatibility prevents life-threatening complications like microemboli.
2
Identify safe administration rates and necessary cardiovascular monitoring.
The medication must be administered slowly (maximum 50 mg/min) while the client is on continuous ECG and blood pressure monitoring.
Rapid infusion is known to cause severe hypotension and potentially fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
3
Determine appropriate delegation for site monitoring.
The RN must retain the responsibility of assessing the IV site for extravasation or infiltration.
Site assessment requires clinical judgment and cannot be legally or safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).

Key Concept

Safe parenteral administration of high-alert medications (IV Phenytoin)
Question 711Question →

Following change-of-shift report on a medical-surgical step-down unit, which of the following assigned clients must the nurse assess first?

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Answer: A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone whose serum sodium level dropped from 127 mEq/L to 114 mEq/L and who exhibits progressive lethargy.

Answer

The client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) experiencing a severe sodium drop and lethargy must be assessed first.
The client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is exhibiting a severe, acute drop in serum sodium to a critical level (114 mEq/L), accompanied by neurological decline (progressive lethargy). This presentation strongly indicates the development of cerebral edema due to intracellular fluid shifts. This is a life-threatening medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention (such as hypertonic saline administration) to prevent seizures, coma, or brain herniation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client with SIADH for physiological instability.
The client has critical hyponatremia (114 mEq/L) and new neurological symptoms (lethargy).
Serum sodium below 120 mEq/L causes severe fluid shifts into brain cells, leading to cerebral edema, seizures, and potential brainstem herniation.
2
Evaluate the asthma client's arterial blood gas values.
Values (pH 7.38, PaCO2 41, PaO2 94) are completely normal.
Normal ABGs indicate the asthma exacerbation is resolving and the airway is currently stable.
3
Interpret the hemodynamic trend for the dehydrated client.
Pulse pressure improved from a narrow 22 mm Hg to a normal 40 mm Hg.
A narrow pulse pressure indicates compensatory shock. Widening to 40 mm Hg signifies successful fluid resuscitation.
4
Assess the post-operative orthopedic client's status.
The client is in the correct position with expected postoperative pain.
An abduction wedge prevents adduction and subsequent hip dislocation, indicating safe and appropriate care.
5
Compare the acuity of all four clients to establish priority.
The SIADH client is the only one experiencing an acute, life-threatening physiological deterioration.
Using the ABCs and Maslow's hierarchy, an impending neurological crisis from severe electrolyte imbalance takes highest priority.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Acute Neurological Complications in Electrolyte Imbalances
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 712Question →

A client admitted with atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of diltiazem. The healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a respiratory tract infection. The client currently has a single peripheral intravenous catheter. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult a drug reference guide to verify the Y-site compatibility of both medications.

Answer

The priority action is to consult a drug reference guide to verify the Y-site compatibility of diltiazem and piperacillin-tazobactam.
When a client has a single intravenous line and requires the administration of a new intermittent medication alongside a continuous infusion, the primary safety action is to verify their Y-site compatibility. Using a trusted pharmacology resource ensures that the medications will not interact adversely, form a precipitate, or alter each other's therapeutic effects. If they are compatible, concurrent administration is safe. If they are incompatible, the nurse will then need to establish an alternative access route.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the current intravenous access and ongoing therapies.
The client has a single peripheral line with a critical continuous diltiazem infusion running.
Identifying the current setup is necessary to determine how to safely administer a new intermittent medication.
2
Evaluate the clinical safety of altering the current therapy.
Pausing the diltiazem is unsafe due to the risk of rapid ventricular response and hemodynamic compromise.
Maintaining client circulation and stability is a top priority.
3
Determine the standard protocol for concurrent intravenous administration.
The nurse must verify Y-site compatibility before mixing the medications in the same line.
Incompatible medications can crystalize or precipitate, causing severe harm to the client.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safety
Question 713Question →

A 68-year-old client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted for an acute exacerbation. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly lethargic over the past hour. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.26, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 68 mm Hg, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 25 mEq/L. To minimize the risk of respiratory arrest, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare to initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation to improve alveolar clearance of carbon dioxide.

Answer

The nurse should prepare to initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation to improve alveolar clearance of carbon dioxide.
The client's ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.26, PaCO2PaCO_2 68 mm Hg). The increasing lethargy is a sign of carbon dioxide narcosis, indicating impending respiratory failure. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation is the priority intervention because it directly improves alveolar ventilation, allowing the client to exhale retained CO2CO_2 and correct the severe acid-base imbalance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH 7.26 indicates acidemia. PaCO2PaCO_2 68 mm Hg indicates respiratory acidosis. HCO3−HCO_3^- 25 mEq/L is normal.
To identify the primary acid-base imbalance.
2
Correlate the ABG results with the clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis with lethargy.
Lethargy in a client with severe COPD and a high PaCO2PaCO_2 strongly indicates carbon dioxide narcosis and impending respiratory failure.
3
Determine the priority risk reduction intervention.
Select noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (e.g., BiPAP).
BiPAP assists with ventilation, helping to blow off excess CO2CO_2 and reverse the hypercapnic encephalopathy.

Key Concept

In clients with severe COPD, acute retention of carbon dioxide leads to respiratory acidosis and altered mental status (narcosis). The priority risk reduction intervention is to improve ventilation to facilitate the removal of carbon dioxide.
Question 714Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury who suddenly complains of a severe, throbbing headache. The nurse notes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury, flushing of the skin, and a blood pressure of 210/115 mmHg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

First, elevate the head of the bed. Second, loosen constrictive clothing. Third, assess the bladder for distention or catheter kinks. Fourth, administer a short-acting antihypertensive if symptoms persist. Finally, document the event and the client's response.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The correct prioritization focuses on immediately mitigating the most dangerous symptom (hypertension) followed by identifying and removing the trigger. Elevating the head of the bed lowers blood pressure via orthostasis. Loosening tight clothing and assessing the bladder (the most common cause) are the next steps to eliminate the noxious stimuli. If these measures fail, antihypertensives are necessary. Documentation is the final step after stabilization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a client with a spinal cord injury at or above T6.
The nurse identifies the throbbing headache, diaphoresis, flushing, and severe hypertension as a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Early recognition prevents life-threatening complications such as a stroke.
2
Prioritize interventions based on the immediate threat to life.
Elevating the head of the bed is chosen as the first action.
Sitting the client upright immediately takes advantage of orthostatic hypotension to lower the dangerous blood pressure, addressing the most critical threat.
3
Determine the sequence for eliminating potential triggers.
Loosening tight clothing is done quickly, followed immediately by assessing the most common internal trigger (bladder).
Removing external noxious stimuli is fast and non-invasive, while bladder assessment addresses the most statistically probable internal cause.
4
Determine the role of medication and documentation in the sequence.
Medication is given if non-pharmacological removal of stimuli fails, and documentation is performed last.
Antihypertensives are a secondary line of treatment if the underlying cause cannot be rapidly fixed. Documentation always follows stabilization.

Key Concept

Prioritization of care for Autonomic Dysreflexia
Question 715Question →

A nurse is preparing to withdraw a prescribed parenteral medication from a glass ampule. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological order to ensure safe preparation. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for safe ampule preparation is: tap the ampule, protect hands with a gauze pad, snap the neck away from the body, withdraw medication using a filter needle, and finally replace the filter needle with an administration needle.
The correct chronological sequence ensures both client and nurse safety when handling glass ampules. Fluid must first be displaced from the neck before breaking to ensure accurate dosing. The nurse's hands must be protected with gauze or an alcohol swab wrapper before snapping the neck away from the body to prevent lacerations. A filter needle is absolutely required to draw up the medication to trap any glass fragments that fall into the solution. Finally, the filter needle must be replaced with a standard needle prior to injection so that trapped glass is not forced into the client's tissues or bloodstream.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Tap the top of the ampule lightly.
Fluid moves out of the neck and into the lower chamber.
Prevents the medication from spilling or being wasted when the ampule is broken.
2
Place a sterile gauze pad around the neck.
The breakable neck is covered.
Protects the nurse's fingers from potential glass shards during the snapping motion.
3
Snap the ampule neck away from the body.
The ampule is safely opened.
Directs breaking glass away from the nurse's face and eyes.
4
Attach a filter needle and withdraw the medication.
Medication is drawn into the syringe while filtering out glass.
Traps any microscopic glass particles that may have fallen into the liquid during breaking.
5
Replace the filter needle with an appropriate administration needle.
The syringe is safely prepared for client administration.
Ensures that the trapped glass particles in the filter are discarded and not injected into the client's tissue.

Key Concept

Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule using a filter needle
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 716Question →

A client who underwent a total colectomy with a newly placed ileostomy three days ago has had 1,800 mL of liquid stool output over the past 8 hours. The client reports dizziness upon sitting up and severe muscle cramps. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 122 bpm, a supine blood pressure of 86/54 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows a pH of 7.22, PaCO2 of 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 15 mEq/L. Which conclusion by the nurse represents the most accurate interpretation of this client's physiological status?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client is experiencing hypovolemia and uncompensated metabolic acidosis secondary to profound loss of intestinal bicarbonate.

Answer

The client is experiencing hypovolemia and uncompensated metabolic acidosis secondary to profound loss of intestinal bicarbonate.
The client's presentation is a direct result of excessive fluid and electrolyte loss from the newly placed ileostomy. Lower gastrointestinal secretions are alkaline and rich in bicarbonate. Losing 1,800 mL of this fluid rapidly depletes the body's bicarbonate reserves, leading to metabolic acidosis. The ABG confirms uncompensated metabolic acidosis because the pH is low (7.22), the HCO3 is low (15 mEq/L), and the PaCO2 remains in the normal range (38 mm Hg). Additionally, the significant fluid loss has caused a severe circulating volume deficit, evidenced by the severe hypotension (86/54 mm Hg) and compensatory tachycardia (122 bpm).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's fluid balance using intake/output and vital signs.
Output of 1,800 mL in 8 hours combined with significant tachycardia and hypotension indicates a severe fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia).
Establishing the hemodynamic status is necessary to identify the primary physiological disruption.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.22 indicates acidemia. A normal PaCO2 (38 mm Hg) paired with a low HCO3 (15 mEq/L) confirms uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
Accurate ABG interpretation identifies the specific acid-base imbalance occurring as a complication.
3
Correlate the pathophysiology of the surgical procedure with the assessment data.
The ileostomy output is rich in water, sodium, and bicarbonate. Massive loss of this specific fluid directly causes both the circulating fluid volume deficit and the metabolic acidosis.
Connecting the clinical findings to the underlying cause ensures accurate clinical judgment and future intervention.

Key Concept

Pathophysiology of Ileostomy Fluid Loss: Hypovolemia and Metabolic Acidosis
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 717Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who returned to the telemetry unit 1 hour ago following a diagnostic cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's immediate plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assess the right dorsalis pedis pulse, capillary refill, and extremity temperature.; Evaluate the client for new-onset lower back pain, flank pain, or sudden hypotension.; Encourage increased oral fluid intake to assist with the renal excretion of radiopaque contrast.

Answer

The correct interventions are assessing the distal pulses/temperature, evaluating for lower back/flank pain, and encouraging fluid intake.
Following a femoral cardiac catheterization, the nurse's priority is reducing the risk of arterial bleeding and distal ischemia. The nurse must frequently assess neurovascular status (pulses, temperature, and capillary refill) distal to the puncture site to ensure adequate perfusion. Assessing for new-onset back or flank pain is critical, as this is a primary and early indicator of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Finally, radiopaque contrast dye used during the procedure is nephrotoxic; encouraging fluid intake promotes diuresis and reduces the risk of acute kidney injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure and the specific anatomical site used for access.
Cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
Determines the specific physiological risks, such as femoral artery bleeding, hematoma formation, and distal extremity ischemia.
2
Analyze post-procedure positioning and mobility restrictions.
The affected leg must remain straight, and the head of the bed should be flat or elevated no more than 30 degrees.
Flexion at the groin increases intra-abdominal pressure and places physical stress on the arterial puncture site, risking rupture.
3
Determine the appropriateness of delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Initial and high-risk client assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP.
The registered nurse must perform critical assessments that require clinical judgment to detect early signs of shock or occlusion.
4
Identify systemic risks associated with the procedural medications or agents.
Radiopaque contrast dye is nephrotoxic.
Hydration is required to protect the kidneys and facilitate the rapid excretion of the dye.

Key Concept

Post-Cardiac Catheterization Risk Reduction
Question 718Question →

A nurse is reviewing medication orders for a client admitted with hypokalemia. The healthcare provider has prescribed 40 mEq of intravenous (IV) potassium chloride (KCl) mixed in 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to be infused over 1 hour via a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the medication prescription.

Answer

Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the medication prescription.
The prescribed rate of 40 mEq/hr for IV potassium chloride is intrinsically unsafe. The maximum safe infusion rate for potassium chloride via a peripheral IV line is typically 10 mEq/hr. Rates exceeding this can cause severe phlebitis, tissue necrosis, and life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse must contact the healthcare provider to clarify and change the prescription before taking any other action.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the prescribed medication, dose, route, and rate.
The prescription is for 40 mEq of IV potassium chloride over 1 hour via a peripheral IV.
Understanding the exact parameters of the medication order is the first step in ensuring patient safety.
2
Recall the safe administration guidelines for IV potassium chloride.
The maximum recommended rate for a peripheral IV is typically 10 mEq/hr. Faster rates or higher concentrations risk severe phlebitis and life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Nurses are responsible for verifying that prescribed dosages and rates fall within safe parameters before administration.
3
Compare the prescribed rate to the safe maximum rate.
The prescribed rate of 40 mEq/hr is four times the safe peripheral limit.
Comparing the order to safety standards identifies potential medication errors.
4
Determine the priority nursing action based on the identified risk.
The nurse must withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider to clarify and change the prescription.
Patient safety is the highest priority, and nurses must not carry out unsafe medication orders.

Key Concept

Intravenous Potassium Administration Safety
Question 719Question →

A 58-year-old client is admitted with a severe acute asthma exacerbation. The client is diaphoretic, restless, and using accessory muscles to breathe. The nurse reviews two sets of arterial blood gas (ABG) results drawn two hours apart on room air:

Initial ABG: pH 7.51, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, PaO2 74 mm Hg
Current ABG: pH 7.37, PaCO2 44 mm Hg, PaO2 59 mm Hg

Based on these clinical findings and the ABG trend, which action should the nurse anticipate immediately to reduce the risk of a severe physiological complication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Preparing the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

Answer

The correct action is to prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The initial ABG demonstrated respiratory alkalosis, which is an expected compensatory response to hypoxemia in early asthma attacks as the client hyperventilates. However, the subsequent ABG shows a rising PaCO2 (now 44 mm Hg) and a falling pH (7.37), despite continued severe clinical distress. This phenomenon, known as 'pseudonormalization', indicates that the client's respiratory muscles are severely fatigued and they are no longer able to maintain the excessive work of breathing. This is a critical warning sign of impending acute respiratory failure and respiratory arrest. The nurse must immediately prepare to secure the airway through intubation and mechanical ventilation to reduce the risk of a fatal outcome.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial ABG results.
The initial results show a high pH and low PaCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis.
This is a normal compensatory mechanism during an early asthma attack as the client hyperventilates to maintain oxygenation.
2
Analyze the current ABG results in relation to the client's physical presentation.
The current results show a 'normal' pH (7.37) and PaCO2 (44 mm Hg), but a worsening PaO2 (59 mm Hg), while the client remains in severe physical distress.
Contextualizing lab values with physical assessment is essential for accurate clinical judgment.
3
Synthesize the data to determine the physiological state.
The rising PaCO2 indicates the client is losing the ability to hyperventilate due to severe respiratory muscle fatigue (pseudonormalization).
If the asthma were resolving, the physical distress would also be subsiding. Persistent distress with rising CO2 means impending respiratory failure.

Key Concept

Pseudonormalization of ABGs in Asthma
Question 720Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with severe acute pancreatitis who is receiving continuous intravenous normal saline at 100 mL/hr. The nurse reviews the client's vital signs and hourly urine output over the past four hours:

TimeBlood PressureHeart RateRespiratory RateUrine Output
08:00124/76 mmHg84 bpm16 breaths/min50 mL/hr
10:00118/80 mmHg96 bpm20 breaths/min35 mL/hr
12:00110/88 mmHg115 bpm24 breaths/min20 mL/hr

At 12:00, the client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air are: pH 7.38, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 33 mmHg, HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- 19 mEq/L, and PaO2\text{PaO}_2 86 mmHg. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the healthcare provider and anticipate a prescription for a rapid intravenous fluid bolus.

Answer

The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider and anticipate a prescription for a rapid intravenous fluid bolus.
The correct action addresses the client's deteriorating hemodynamic status. The trends in the vital signs demonstrate a narrowing pulse pressure (from 48 mmHg at 08:00 to 22 mmHg at 12:00), worsening tachycardia, tachypnea, and oliguria, which are classic early indicators of compensatory hypovolemic shock. Clients with severe acute pancreatitis are at high risk for profound fluid shifts (third-spacing). The arterial blood gas reveals a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, likely secondary to lactic acid buildup from poor tissue perfusion. The priority action is aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the trends in the client's vital signs and urine output.
The pulse pressure has narrowed significantly (from 48 mmHg to 22 mmHg), heart rate has increased to 115 bpm, respiratory rate has increased, and urine output has dropped to 20 mL/hr.
Recognizing trends is essential to detect early compensatory mechanisms in shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH 7.38 (normal but on the acidic side), PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 33 mmHg (low), HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- 19 mEq/L (low). This indicates a fully compensated metabolic acidosis.
Identifying the acid-base balance helps confirm poor tissue perfusion and lactic acid accumulation secondary to hypovolemia.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the physiological findings.
The most critical issue is impending hypovolemic shock due to third-spacing of fluids, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation.
According to prioritization principles (ABCs and Maslow's hierarchy), restoring adequate circulation and tissue perfusion is the immediate life-saving priority.

Key Concept

Early recognition of hypovolemic shock and prioritization of circulatory resuscitation in clients with severe fluid shifts.
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