All practice questions

3881 questions

Question 981Question →

A client admitted with cardiogenic shock is prescribed a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy provides dopamine 400 mg400 \text{ mg} mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% NaCl0.9\% \text{ NaCl}.

At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the IV infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15

Answer

The correct infusion rate is 15 mL/hr.
The correct infusion rate is 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. This is determined by first converting the client's weight to kilograms (176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}). The total dose per minute is calculated (80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}) and then converted to an hourly rate (400 mcg/min×60=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}). After converting micrograms to milligrams (24,000 mcg=24 mg24,000 \text{ mcg} = 24 \text{ mg}), the required volume per hour is calculated using the provided medication concentration (24 mg400 mg×250 mL=15 mL/hr\frac{24 \text{ mg}}{400 \text{ mg}} \times 250 \text{ mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on kilograms (mcg/kg/min).
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute.
80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
The prescription specifies administering 5 micrograms for every kilogram of body weight per minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, requiring the calculation of the total amount of medication needed per hour.
4
Convert the dose from micrograms to milligrams to match the medication concentration.
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,000=24 mg/hr24,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 = 24 \text{ mg/hr}
The available medication is supplied in milligrams, so the dose must be in the same unit before calculating volume.
5
Calculate the final volume rate based on the available concentration.
(24 mg/hr400 mg)×250 mL=15 mL/hr(\frac{24 \text{ mg/hr}}{400 \text{ mg}}) \times 250 \text{ mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This calculation determines how many mL contain the required 24 mg dose, yielding the final pump setting.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous IV infusion rate calculation
Question 982Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with severe pneumonia and dehydration. The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter, is receiving a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride, and has new prescriptions for scheduled IV levofloxacin and PRN IV morphine. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate safe parenteral therapy practices? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Flushing the IV lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the PRN IV morphine.; Verifying the Y-site compatibility of levofloxacin with the continuous 0.9% sodium chloride infusion before administration.

Answer

The safe practices are flushing the IV lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the PRN IV morphine, and verifying the Y-site compatibility of levofloxacin with the continuous 0.9% sodium chloride infusion before administration.
Safe parenteral therapy requires confirming compatibility before mixing any fluids or medications in the same line. Furthermore, flushing a line with a compatible fluid like sterile normal saline before and after an IV push medication ensures the entire dose reaches the client and clears the line of any potential remnants that could react with subsequent infusions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each action for adherence to safe IV medication administration standards.
Flushing the line and checking compatibility are identified as fundamental safety protocols.
These actions prevent adverse drug interactions, precipitation, and ensure accurate dose delivery.
2
Analyze the action of administering IV morphine without a prior compatibility check.
This action is determined to be highly unsafe.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause physical or chemical incompatibilities, leading to severe patient harm.
3
Review the described method for calculating the levofloxacin infusion rate.
Excluding the diluent volume is identified as a critical calculation error.
The total volume infused (medication plus diluent) must be used to accurately program the IV pump to deliver the correct dose over the prescribed time.
4
Apply prioritization frameworks to the scenario involving a sudden onset of respiratory distress.
Ignoring acute respiratory distress to administer a scheduled medication is recognized as a life-threatening prioritization error.
Airway and breathing emergencies must be addressed immediately before performing routine tasks.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires strict adherence to drug compatibility checks, correct total volume calculations, proper line flushing, and prioritizing acute life-threatening changes over routine medication administration.
Question 983Question →

An oncology nurse is coordinating shift activities for a group of clients. The care team includes the nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following tasks can the nurse safely delegate to the UAP? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Documenting the oral fluid intake for a client receiving continuous intravenous hydration.; Assisting a client with chemotherapy-induced fatigue to safely use a bedside commode.; Applying a non-prescription barrier ointment to a client's intact perineal skin.

Answer

The tasks that can be safely delegated include documenting oral fluid intake, assisting a fatigued client to a bedside commode, and applying non-prescription barrier ointment to intact skin.
The safe delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel is strictly limited to standard, unchanging procedures that do not require clinical judgment. Documenting oral fluid intake, assisting a stable (though fatigued) client to the commode, and applying non-prescription ointment to intact skin are all routine activities of daily living and basic hygiene interventions that meet the exact criteria for safe delegation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical setting, the staff mix, and the stability of the clients.
The setting is an oncology unit, the delegatee is an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and the tasks involve a mix of routine care, assessments, teaching, and managing an unstable client.
Safe delegation requires evaluating the Five Rights, including ensuring the right person and the right circumstance for each specific task.
2
Evaluate each potential task against the recognized UAP scope of practice.
Tasks involving routine activities of daily living (ADLs), intake and output measurement, and basic hygiene on intact skin are firmly within the UAP scope.
UAPs can perform standard, non-invasive, repetitive tasks with predictable outcomes on stable clients.
3
Identify and exclude tasks that violate the fundamental principles of nursing delegation.
Assessing the oral mucosa, reinforcing education to visitors, and measuring vital signs for an acutely unstable client must be excluded.
The registered nurse cannot delegate clinical assessment, teaching, or the care of a hemodynamically unstable client (remember the EAT acronym: Evaluate, Assess, Teach).

Key Concept

Delegation of routine, standard care tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) while retaining tasks requiring nursing judgment, assessment, and teaching.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 984Question →

A nurse is performing a sterile vaginal examination on a client in active labor who has just experienced a spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse palpates a soft, pulsating mass in the vaginal vault. The electronic fetal monitor demonstrates severe, recurrent variable decelerations. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence of actions is: 1. Apply upward pressure to the fetal presenting part, 2. Call for emergency assistance, 3. Reposition into a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position, 4. Administer oxygen, 5. Prepare for emergency cesarean birth.
Umbilical cord prolapse is an acute, life-threatening obstetric emergency characterized by the cord slipping ahead of the fetal presenting part. The overarching goal is to prevent fetal hypoxia. The nurse must first manually relieve cord compression (the immediate physiological threat). While maintaining this pressure, the nurse secures help. Repositioning utilizes gravity to assist. Oxygen is then administered to optimize fetal oxygenation before preparing for the definitive surgical delivery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Apply upward manual pressure to the fetal presenting part.
Relieves mechanical compression on the umbilical cord.
Immediate restoration of umbilical blood flow is the most critical life-saving intervention to prevent irreversible fetal hypoxia.
2
Direct staff to call for emergency assistance and notify the provider.
Activates the obstetric emergency response team.
Additional personnel are required to perform subsequent interventions while the primary nurse maintains continuous manual pressure on the presenting part.
3
Assist the client into a knee-chest or extreme Trendelenburg position.
Uses gravity to shift the fetus toward the uterine fundus.
This positional change further reduces the risk of cord compression, supplementing the manual pressure being applied.
4
Administer supplemental oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min via a nonrebreather mask.
Increases maternal circulating blood oxygen tension.
Maximizes the oxygen available for placental transfer to the compromised fetus.
5
Prepare the client for an immediate emergency cesarean birth.
Readies the client for surgical intervention.
Surgical delivery is the definitive treatment for cord prolapse to safely extract the fetus when a vaginal birth is not immediately imminent.

Key Concept

Nursing management and prioritization for umbilical cord prolapse
Question 985Question →

An older adult client is recovering on the medical-surgical unit following an ischemic stroke. The nurse observes the client coughing frequently and pocketing food in their cheek during breakfast. Which action should the nurse take to provide safe, collaborative care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request a referral to a speech-language pathologist for a swallowing evaluation.

Answer

Request a referral to a speech-language pathologist for a swallowing evaluation.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of dysphagia, which places them at a high risk for aspiration pneumonia. The speech-language pathologist (SLP) is the specific interdisciplinary team member trained to perform a comprehensive swallowing assessment and recommend safe dietary modifications (such as thickened liquids or pureed foods). Collaborating with the SLP is the safest and most appropriate intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms during the meal.
Coughing and pocketing food are classic signs of dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and indicate a high risk for aspiration.
Identifying acute physical changes is the first step in the nursing process to ensure client safety.
2
Identify the appropriate interdisciplinary team member to address this specific deficit.
The speech-language pathologist (SLP) is identified as the expert in swallowing mechanics.
Effective interprofessional collaboration requires knowing the scope of practice of various allied health professionals.
3
Initiate the collaboration.
The nurse requests an SLP referral and holds oral intake until the client is formally evaluated.
Prompt referral prevents aspiration pneumonia and ensures a safe dietary plan is established.

Key Concept

Speech-Language Pathologists (SLPs) are the primary interdisciplinary team members responsible for evaluating and managing dysphagia (swallowing difficulties) to prevent aspiration.
Question 986Question →

While coordinating care in an outpatient pulmonary clinic, the nurse distributes tasks among the healthcare team. Which client care activity is most appropriate to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recording the current body weight of a client returning for a routine follow-up check.

Answer

Recording the current body weight of a client returning for a routine follow-up check.
The correct answer is recording the current body weight of a client. The delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) must follow the fundamental principles of nursing scope of practice. Tasks assigned to a UAP should be routine, standard, and have predictable outcomes. Obtaining a client's weight is a basic data collection task that does not involve independent clinical judgment, assessment, or evaluation, making it entirely safe and legal for the UAP to perform.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scope of practice and legal boundaries for an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
The UAP can safely perform routine, standard, and unchanging tasks on stable clients.
Delegation frameworks dictate that tasks requiring nursing judgment, assessment, or teaching cannot be delegated.
2
Evaluate the clinical requirements of each proposed activity.
Teaching inhaler use, evaluating symptom improvement, and interpreting peak flow results all require clinical judgment.
Applying the 'EAT' acronym (Evaluate, Assess, Teach) helps rule out tasks inappropriate for a UAP.
3
Select the activity that involves gathering basic data without the need for analysis.
Recording body weight is chosen as the correct delegation.
Measuring weight is a standardized procedure with predictable results.

Key Concept

Delegation of routine, non-complex tasks to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel
Estimated Time:45s
Question 987Question →

A nurse is independently discontinuing a right subclavian central venous catheter for a 64-year-old client recovering from severe pneumonia. Immediately upon removal of the catheter, the client gasps, becomes intensely diaphoretic, and reports crushing chest pain. Suspecting a central line-associated air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange from first action to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence of actions is to first occlude the insertion site, then place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, apply 100% oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and finally auscultate heart sounds.
The correct sequence for managing a suspected air embolism requires the nurse to prioritize immediate, life-saving mechanical interventions over standard ABCs and delegation. The nurse must first occlude the insertion site to prevent further air entry. Second, the left lateral Trendelenburg position is used to trap the air in the right atrium. Third, high-flow oxygen is administered to treat hypoxemia and wash out nitrogen. Fourth, the rapid response team is activated for advanced support. Finally, once the client is stabilized, further diagnostic assessments like auscultation are performed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Occlude the catheter insertion site.
Prevents additional ambient air from entering the central venous system.
Source control is the absolute highest priority to stop the ongoing physiological insult.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the existing air in the right atrium.
This specific position (Durant's maneuver) utilizes gravity and buoyancy to keep the air bubble away from the right ventricular outflow tract, preventing fatal pulmonary artery occlusion.
3
Initiate 100% oxygen therapy.
Combats hypoxemia and promotes nitrogen washout.
High concentrations of oxygen decrease the partial pressure of nitrogen in the blood, helping to shrink the air bubble while simultaneously treating tissue hypoxia.
4
Activate the rapid response team.
Mobilizes advanced life support personnel.
Once immediate life-saving physical maneuvers are complete, the nurse must summon the healthcare provider and emergency team for further stabilization.
5
Auscultate heart sounds.
Assesses for a 'mill wheel' murmur and cardiopulmonary compromise.
Detailed diagnostic assessment is performed after the client is stabilized and help has been summoned.

Key Concept

Management of a central line-associated venous air embolism prioritizes immediate source control (occlusion) and specific physiological positioning (left lateral Trendelenburg) before standard oxygenation and team notification.
Question 988Question →

While responding to a high-pressure equipment alarm on a respiratory step-down unit, the charge nurse enters a client's room and observes a float registered nurse (RN) from the psychiatric unit attempting to silence a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine. The client is visibly dyspneic, diaphoretic, and has not yet been assessed by the float RN. Arrange the following actions the charge nurse should take in the correct priority order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct order prioritizes immediate patient safety (assessment then intervention), followed by correcting unit assignments (transferring the unstable client, then reassigning the float RN), and concludes with supervisory communication and administrative reporting.
In any clinical management scenario, the nurse must prioritize based on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), and the Nursing Process. 1) Assessment of the dyspneic client's ABCs is the absolute first priority. 2) Intervening to resolve the airway/breathing compromise follows assessment. 3) Once the client is stable, the charge nurse must immediately correct the unsafe assignment by transferring the complex client to a competent respiratory step-down RN. 4) The float RN must then be given a safe assignment matching their skill set. 5) With patient safety secured, the charge nurse conducts private supervisory feedback. 6) Finally, the institutional incident report is completed, as paperwork is always the lowest priority in an emergency situation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize immediate patient survival using the ABCs and Nursing Process.
The charge nurse assesses the client and then intervenes to stabilize the respiratory status.
Life-threatening issues take precedence over all other duties. Assessment must always precede intervention.
2
Ensure a safe environment by correcting inappropriate assignments.
The unstable client is transferred to a competent RN, and the float RN is reassigned to stable clients.
An RN floated from a psychiatric unit does not have the competency to manage acute respiratory failure on CPAP. The assignment must be modified to protect both the clients and the float RN's license.
3
Fulfill supervisory and administrative responsibilities.
The charge nurse provides private feedback to the float RN and then completes an incident report.
Direct communication and education should occur promptly after safety is assured, while formal paperwork is always the final administrative step.

Key Concept

Prioritization frameworks (ABCs, Nursing Process) must be applied to delegation and supervision tasks. Patient safety is always addressed before staff assignments, education, or administrative documentation.
Question 989Question →

A registered nurse is preparing to witness the signature on an informed consent document for an older adult client scheduled for a cardiac procedure. The client is alert and oriented but states, 'The physician explained the surgery, but I still do not understand what my other treatment options are. I am only signing this because my daughter said she will stop taking care of me if I refuse.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refrain from witnessing the client's signature on the informed consent document.; Notify the healthcare provider that the client requires further explanation of the treatment alternatives.; Report the daughter's statements to social services or the appropriate adult protective agency.

Answer

The nurse should refrain from witnessing the signature, notify the healthcare provider to explain the alternatives, and report the daughter's threat to the appropriate protective agency.
The correct actions prioritize client safety, legal rights, and clinical advocacy. Because the client does not understand the alternatives and is being coerced by their daughter's threat of abandonment, the consent is neither informed nor voluntary. Therefore, the nurse must withhold their signature as a witness, notify the provider to fulfill the medical duty of explaining alternatives, and fulfill mandatory reporting laws by contacting protective services regarding the potential elder abuse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's statements for the elements of valid informed consent.
The client lacks understanding of alternatives and is experiencing coercion, meaning the criteria for informed and voluntary consent are not met.
Valid informed consent requires the client to be legally competent, fully informed of all options, and acting voluntarily without external coercion.
2
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for the halted consent process.
The nurse must refuse to witness the signature and notify the provider to clarify the treatment options.
The nurse's role is to act as a client advocate and witness that the client understands the provider's explanation. The provider must be the one to supply the missing medical information regarding alternatives.
3
Address the psychosocial safety concern raised by the client.
The nurse must report the daughter's threat of abandonment to adult protective services or the facility's social work department.
Threatening to withhold care is a form of elder abuse. Nurses are legally mandated to report suspected abuse immediately to protect vulnerable populations.

Key Concept

The nurse's role in informed consent involves validating client comprehension, ensuring voluntariness, halting the process if criteria are unmet, and acting as a mandatory reporter for suspected coercion or abuse.
Question 990Question →

A clinical nurse is managing a client admitted with severe acute pyelonephritis. The client suddenly develops new-onset restlessness and confusion. Assessment reveals bounding peripheral pulses, warm and flushed skin, and the following vital signs: temperature 39.2∘C39.2^\circ\text{C} (102.6∘F102.6^\circ\text{F}), heart rate 128128 beats/minute, respiratory rate 3030 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 86/50 mm Hg86/50\text{ mm Hg}. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample drawn on room air demonstrates a pH of 7.507.50, PaCO 2_2 of 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}, PaO 2_2 of 82 mm Hg82\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO 3−_3^- of 21 mEq/L21\text{ mEq/L}. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most critical immediate action the nurse should execute?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid intravenous fluid bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Answer

Initiate a rapid intravenous fluid bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client's presentation of severe hypotension, marked tachycardia, warm/flushed skin, and bounding pulses, combined with a severe underlying infection (pyelonephritis), clearly indicates the early hyperdynamic phase of septic shock. The uncompensated respiratory alkalosis is a classic compensatory response to early systemic inflammation. The most critical, life-saving immediate action for distributive shock with relative hypovolemia is aggressive fluid resuscitation using isotonic crystalloids to restore circulating volume and organ perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The presence of severe hypotension (86/50 mm Hg86/50\text{ mm Hg}), marked tachycardia (128128 beats/minute), bounding pulses, and warm/flushed skin in a client with a severe infection indicates distributive shock, specifically the early hyperdynamic ('warm') phase of septic shock.
Recognizing the atypical presentation of early septic shock (warm skin instead of cool/clammy) is crucial for rapid intervention.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical scenario.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.507.50, PaCO 2_2 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}). In the context of infection, this is a classic early physiological response to systemic inflammation and endotoxin release.
Endotoxins directly stimulate the medullary respiratory center, causing hyperventilation before lactic acidosis has fully developed.
3
Determine the physiological priority based on the synthesized data.
The massive systemic vasodilation has caused a state of relative hypovolemia, drastically reducing perfusion to vital organs, as evidenced by the new-onset confusion.
Restoring intravascular volume is the absolute prerequisite before addressing vascular tone or secondary symptoms.
4
Select the appropriate evidence-based intervention.
Rapid administration of isotonic crystalloid fluids (typically 30 mL/kg30\text{ mL/kg}) is the primary, life-saving intervention for sepsis-induced tissue hypoperfusion.
Crystalloids quickly expand the intravascular space to compensate for the massive vasodilation.

Key Concept

Early (Hyperdynamic) Septic Shock Recognition and Initial Resuscitation
Question 991Question →

During the initial 1212 hours following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy for a pituitary adenoma, the nurse evaluates a 4545-year-old client's clinical status. Which assessment findings indicate impending physiological decompensation and require immediate risk reduction interventions? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client reports a constant sensation of postnasal drip and frequent swallowing.; Urine output totals 1,2001,200 mL over a 22-hour period with a specific gravity of 1.0011.001.; The client states that their peripheral vision is significantly blurrier than it was prior to surgery.

Answer

The correct selections are the constant sensation of postnasal drip/swallowing, the massive polyuria with low specific gravity, and the sudden blurring of peripheral vision.
The correct findings requiring immediate intervention include constant swallowing (which indicates a cerebrospinal fluid leak descending into the pharynx), massive dilute polyuria (which indicates the onset of Diabetes Insipidus leading to severe fluid volume deficit), and sudden visual changes (which indicate a space-occupying hematoma compressing the optic chiasm). All three represent critical physiological decompensations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its specific high-risk anatomical structures.
Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves traversing the sphenoid sinus to reach the pituitary gland, placing the optic chiasm, meninges, and neurohypophysis at high risk for trauma.
Understanding the anatomical pathway is critical for predicting localized complications.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to differentiate between expected postoperative occurrences and severe complications.
Frequent swallowing (CSF leak), extreme dilute polyuria (Diabetes Insipidus), and visual changes (optic nerve compression) are identified as acute decompensations.
Risk reduction requires prioritizing immediate physiological threats over expected postoperative baseline findings like mild pain or scant bleeding.

Key Concept

Postoperative complication recognition and risk reduction following transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.
Question 992Question →

A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is 1 hour postpartum following a spontaneous vaginal birth. The nurse observes a sudden, heavy gush of vaginal bleeding. Upon palpation, the uterus is boggy and displaced to the right of the umbilicus. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority order of execution.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence of actions is: 1) Firmly massage the uterine fundus, 2) Assist the client to empty the bladder, 3) Administer a prescribed uterotonic medication, 4) Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids, and 5) Weigh the perineal pads.
In the event of postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony, immediate manual stimulation via fundal massage is the absolute first priority to stop bleeding. The observation of a uterus displaced to the right indicates a full bladder, which must be emptied next because it physically impedes the uterus from staying contracted. After manual and anatomical corrections, uterotonic medications are administered to sustain the contraction. Fluid resuscitation follows to address the physiological impact of the blood loss, and finally, exact quantification of blood loss is performed to guide ongoing therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Massage the uterine fundus.
The uterus is mechanically stimulated to contract.
Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate manual stimulation is the fastest way to induce contractions and compress bleeding vessels.
2
Empty the bladder.
The physical obstruction preventing the uterus from remaining contracted is removed.
A fundus that is displaced to the right indicates a full bladder. A full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting effectively, leading to continued bleeding.
3
Administer uterotonic medications.
Sustained chemical stimulation of the uterine muscle is achieved.
Once mechanical causes (atony and bladder distension) are addressed, medications like oxytocin are necessary to maintain the contraction and prevent recurrent atony.
4
Increase intravenous fluids.
Intravascular volume is expanded.
The client has experienced a heavy gush of bleeding. Increasing IV fluids helps maintain cardiac output, tissue perfusion, and prevents hypovolemic shock.
5
Quantify blood loss.
An accurate measurement of the hemorrhage is obtained.
Measuring blood loss by weighing pads (1 gram = 1 mL) is necessary to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions and determine if further treatments (e.g., blood transfusion) are required.

Key Concept

Prioritization of nursing interventions for postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony and bladder distension.
Question 993Question →

A 45-year-old client is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit following a severe traumatic brain injury. The client's current intracranial pressure (ICP) reads 24 mmHg. The nurse reviews the most recent assessment data:

- Neurological: Sedated; pupils are equal but sluggish to react.
- Hemodynamics: Blood pressure 170/86 mmHg, heart rate 54 bpm, temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG): pH 7.31, PaCO2 56 mmHg, HCO3 25 mEq/L, PaO2 94 mmHg.
- Positioning: Head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees, neck in neutral midline alignment.

To reduce the risk of cerebral herniation, which action should the nurse implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Collaborate with the respiratory therapist to increase the ventilator's respiratory rate.

Answer

The correct action is to collaborate with the respiratory therapist to increase the ventilator's respiratory rate.
The client is exhibiting clinical signs of impending cerebral herniation (Cushing's triad: hypertension with a widened pulse pressure and bradycardia) alongside a critically elevated intracranial pressure of 24 mmHg (normal is 5-15 mmHg). The arterial blood gas reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis with significant hypercapnia (PaCO2 56 mmHg). Carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator. When PaCO2 rises, cerebral blood vessels dilate, increasing intracranial blood volume and driving up ICP. The priority risk reduction action is to increase minute ventilation by collaborating to increase the ventilator's respiratory rate. This 'blows off' excess CO2, promoting cerebral vasoconstriction and rapidly lowering the ICP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's current hemodynamics by calculating Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) and Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP).
MAP=170+2(86)3=114MAP = \frac{170 + 2(86)}{3} = 114 mmHg. CPP=114−24=90CPP = 114 - 24 = 90 mmHg.
To verify that the brain is receiving adequate blood flow (target CPP > 60-70 mmHg). Since CPP is adequate at 90 mmHg, the immediate physiological priority shifts directly to lowering the abnormally high ICP (target < 20 mmHg).
2
Analyze the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results.
pH 7.31 (acidosis), PaCO2 56 mmHg (respiratory acidosis), HCO3 25 mEq/L (normal).
To identify any metabolic or respiratory derangements that could be precipitating the intracranial hypertension.
3
Connect the physiological laboratory data to the cerebral pathology.
The client has hypercapnia. Elevated carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator.
Understanding this physiological relationship identifies the root cause of the current ICP spike. The vasodilation is increasing cerebral blood volume, which in the confined space of the skull, drives up ICP.
4
Determine the priority intervention to mitigate the precipitating cause.
Increasing the mechanical ventilator's respiratory rate or tidal volume.
Increasing minute ventilation will 'blow off' excess CO2, bringing the PaCO2 down to a normal range (35-45 mmHg). This promotes cerebral vasoconstriction, effectively reducing intracranial pressure and the risk of herniation.

Key Concept

Cerebral hemodynamics and risk reduction in elevated intracranial pressure.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 994Question →

Following a transition of care report, the nurse assesses an older adult hospitalized for an acute infective exacerbation of emphysema. The client is receiving scheduled intravenous glucocorticoids and continuous nebulized bronchodilators. Which of the following clinical findings demand immediate medical notification? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client demonstrates paradoxical inward abdominal movement during inspiration.; The cardiac monitor displays a new onset of frequent premature ventricular contractions.; The client becomes newly agitated and repeatedly attempts to remove the oxygen mask.

Answer

The findings requiring immediate notification are paradoxical abdominal breathing, new onset of frequent premature ventricular contractions, and newly developed agitation with attempts to remove the oxygen mask.
The correct selections highlight acute deteriorations that threaten Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABCs). Paradoxical abdominal breathing indicates severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure. A new onset of dysrhythmias suggests profound cardiac hypoxemia or potential medication toxicity. Increasing agitation and attempts to remove the oxygen source are classic early behavioral indicators of worsening systemic hypoxia that demand immediate, life-saving intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's diagnoses and current treatments.
The client has an acute exacerbation of emphysema and is receiving intravenous glucocorticoids and bronchodilators.
Establishing the baseline is necessary to anticipate expected chronic manifestations and common medication side effects.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding using the acute versus chronic prioritization framework.
Paradoxical breathing, new dysrhythmias, and severe agitation represent acute, life-threatening changes to the client's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs).
Acute deteriorations always take priority over stable or chronic conditions.
3
Identify the expected findings to eliminate them as immediate priorities.
Compensated arterial blood gases (normal pH with elevated CO2 and HCO3), fine hand tremors, and a barrel chest are identified as expected or chronic.
Expected pathophysiological changes of emphysema and anticipated medication side effects do not require immediate emergency intervention.

Key Concept

Prioritization in respiratory compromise requires distinguishing between acute, life-threatening changes (e.g., paradoxical breathing, hypoxia-induced restlessness, new dysrhythmias) and expected chronic manifestations or pharmacological side effects (e.g., compensated respiratory acidosis, barrel chest, bronchodilator-induced tremors).
Question 995Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine. The nurse notes that the IV insertion site is blanched, cool to the touch, and swollen. The client reports a severe burning sensation at the site. Arrange the following nursing actions in the exact sequence they should be performed, from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for managing a vasopressor extravasation is to first stop the infusion, then aspirate the residual medication, notify the healthcare provider, administer the antidote through the existing catheter, and finally remove the catheter.
When a vesicant like norepinephrine extravasates, the immediate priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further tissue damage. Crucially, the catheter must be left in place initially. This allows the nurse to attach a syringe and aspirate any residual drug from the line and the subcutaneous tissue. The provider is then notified to obtain an order for an antidote, typically phentolamine. The antidote is administered directly through the existing IV line to ensure it reaches the exact site of extravasation and reverses the vasoconstriction. Finally, once the antidote is delivered, the catheter is removed and the extremity is elevated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the norepinephrine infusion immediately.
The flow of the vesicant into the subcutaneous tissue is halted.
Continuing the infusion will cause further vasoconstriction, severe ischemia, and subsequent tissue necrosis.
2
Aspirate the residual medication from the intravenous catheter.
Remaining norepinephrine is removed from the catheter and localized tissue.
Aspiration minimizes the total volume of the vesicant that the tissue is exposed to, reducing the severity of the injury.
3
Notify the healthcare provider to obtain a prescription for an antidote.
A prescription for phentolamine is obtained.
Nurses cannot prescribe medications; an order is required to administer the specific pharmacological antidote for alpha-adrenergic extravasation.
4
Administer phentolamine through the existing intravenous catheter.
The antidote reaches the exact site of the extravasation.
Phentolamine induces localized vasodilation, counteracting the severe vasoconstriction caused by norepinephrine. Giving it through the existing line ensures direct delivery to the compromised tissue.
5
Remove the intravenous catheter and elevate the extremity.
The source of the infiltration is removed, and edema is managed.
The catheter has fulfilled its purpose of delivering the antidote and must be removed to prevent infection and allow the site to heal.

Key Concept

Management of Vesicant Extravasation
Question 996Question →

A nurse is preparing to mix and administer regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe for a client with diabetes mellitus. Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order to ensure safe and effective medication preparation.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first inject air into the NPH vial, then inject air into the regular vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing intermediate-acting (NPH, cloudy) and short-acting (regular, clear) insulin, the standard safety protocol is 'clear before cloudy'. First, air is injected into the NPH vial, then air is injected into the regular vial. The regular insulin is then withdrawn first, followed by the NPH insulin. This precise sequence prevents the longer-acting NPH insulin from accidentally contaminating the vial of short-acting regular insulin, which could affect the onset and peak times of future doses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the order for injecting air into the vials.
Air must be injected into the cloudy (NPH) vial first, followed by the clear (regular) vial.
Injecting air equalizes the pressure inside the vials. Doing the NPH vial first ensures the needle does not carry regular insulin into the NPH vial prematurely.
2
Determine the order for withdrawing the medication.
The clear (regular) insulin is withdrawn first, followed by the cloudy (NPH) insulin.
Drawing up the clear insulin before the cloudy insulin prevents accidental contamination of the rapid/short-acting insulin vial with intermediate-acting insulin.

Key Concept

Safe Preparation of Mixed Insulin (Clear Before Cloudy)
Question 997Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is 3 hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via a right femoral artery approach. The client, who has a history of osteoarthritis, reports severe lower back stiffness and requests to sit upright or get out of bed. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote comfort while ensuring client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees and slide a small, rolled towel under the client's lumbar spine.

Answer

The correct action is to maintain the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees and slide a small, rolled towel under the client's lumbar spine.
Following a femoral artery puncture, the client must remain on strict bedrest with the affected leg completely straight for several hours to prevent arterial bleeding or hematoma formation. The head of the bed should not be elevated more than 30 degrees to avoid placing undue pressure on the femoral insertion site. Placing a small, rolled towel or lumbar roll under the lower back safely supports the natural curvature of the spine and alleviates muscle stiffness without compromising the vascular access site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current clinical status and procedure.
The client is 3 hours post-PCI via the right femoral artery.
Identifying the procedure dictates the specific safety parameters for positioning.
2
Determine the required physiological constraints for this procedure.
The right leg must remain completely straight, and the head of the bed cannot be elevated more than 30 degrees.
These restrictions are mandatory to prevent arterial bleeding or hematoma formation at the femoral puncture site.
3
Evaluate the client's request against the safety constraints.
Sitting upright (high-Fowler's) or getting out of bed violates the safety constraints and is contraindicated.
Flexing the groin increases intra-abdominal and groin pressure, risking severe hemorrhage.
4
Select a safe basic care intervention to alleviate lower back stiffness.
Placing a small, rolled towel under the lumbar spine provides comfort while keeping the head of the bed low and the right leg straight.
This intervention respects the anatomical curve of the spine without compromising the vascular access site.

Key Concept

Safe positioning and comfort measures following femoral artery access
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 998Question →

A client with a seizure disorder is currently receiving a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) through a single peripheral IV catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate dose of intravenous phenytoin. Knowing that phenytoin forms a precipitate when mixed with dextrose solutions, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to safely deliver the medication.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first pause the incompatible infusion, flush the line with normal saline, administer the phenytoin slowly, flush again with normal saline at the exact same slow rate, and finally resume the continuous infusion.
When administering an IV push medication that is incompatible with a continuous IV infusion, the nurse must utilize the Saline-Administer-Saline method. First, the continuous infusion must be paused to stop the flow of the incompatible fluid. The line is then aspirated and flushed with a compatible solution (normal saline) to clear the existing fluid from the tubing. Next, the medication is administered at its recommended safe rate. Crucially, the subsequent flush must be administered at the exact same rate as the medication to ensure the drug residing in the tubing dead space is not rapidly flushed into the client's circulation. Finally, the primary infusion can be safely resumed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause the primary continuous IV infusion pump.
The flow of the incompatible D5W solution is completely stopped.
This is the first essential step to prevent the mixing of phenytoin and dextrose, which causes immediate crystallization.
2
Aspirate for a blood return and flush the IV line with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
IV patency is confirmed and the tubing is cleared of D5W.
Confirming patency ensures the medication will enter the vein safely. Normal saline is compatible with phenytoin and clears the incompatible fluid.
3
Administer the IV phenytoin at a rate not exceeding 50 mg/min.
The medication is delivered safely into the saline-primed line.
Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause severe hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiovascular collapse.
4
Flush the IV line again with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride at the same rate the medication was administered.
The medication remaining in the dead space of the IV tubing is cleared into the patient.
If the second flush is given rapidly, the patient receives a rapid bolus of the residual phenytoin in the line, leading to adverse cardiovascular effects.
5
Resume the primary continuous IV infusion of 5% dextrose in water.
The client continues to receive their prescribed continuous IV therapy.
The line is now clear of phenytoin, making it safe to reintroduce the dextrose solution.

Key Concept

Administration of an IV push medication incompatible with the primary continuous IV fluid requires pausing the pump and using the Saline-Administer-Saline method, ensuring the final flush is administered at the same rate as the medication to prevent rapid bolusing of residual drug in the dead space.
Question 999Question →

A client with acute kidney injury is exhibiting profound muscle weakness. The bedside cardiac monitor suddenly displays a widened QRS complex and tall, peaked T waves. The laboratory reports a stat serum potassium level of 7.8 mEq/L7.8\text{ mEq/L}. The healthcare provider has prescribed several urgent interventions. Arrange the following pharmacological actions in the priority sequence the nurse must implement them.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct priority sequence is to first stabilize the myocardium with calcium gluconate, second shift potassium intracellularly with insulin and dextrose, third remove potassium from the body with sodium polystyrene sulfonate, and finally evaluate the client's response with follow-up laboratory tests.
The pathophysiology of severe hyperkalemia demands a specific sequence of interventions. The most immediate threat to life is cardiac toxicity, manifested by widened QRS complexes and peaked T waves. Therefore, calcium gluconate is always the first line of treatment to raise the threshold potential and stabilize the myocardium. Next, fast-acting agents like IV insulin and dextrose are used to rapidly shift potassium into cells. Slower-acting agents like sodium polystyrene sulfonate are then given for definitive removal from the body. Finally, evaluation of the therapy is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
Myocardial excitability is decreased and the cell membrane is stabilized.
This is the immediate life-saving intervention to prevent lethal ventricular arrhythmias caused by severe hyperkalemia.
2
Administer intravenous regular insulin concurrently with 50% dextrose.
Potassium is rapidly driven from the intravascular space into the intracellular fluid.
This provides a rapid, albeit temporary, reduction in the circulating serum potassium level, buying time for excretion therapies to work.
3
Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate via retention enema.
Potassium is exchanged for sodium in the large intestine and excreted in feces.
This provides permanent removal of potassium from the body, but is given after stabilizing medications because its onset of action takes hours.
4
Obtain a follow-up serum potassium level.
Current serum electrolyte status is documented.
The nurse must evaluate if the applied medical therapies were effective or if further interventions, such as emergent hemodialysis, are required.

Key Concept

In the presence of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, immediate myocardial stabilization with calcium gluconate must precede therapies that lower serum potassium.
Question 1000Question →

During the morning shift, a nurse provides care for a client who underwent a right above-the-knee amputation 48 hours ago. The client is medically stable and preparing to begin physical therapy. To promote optimal physical mobility and prevent common musculoskeletal complications, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times a day.

Answer

Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times a day.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the most significant risk to physical mobility is the development of a hip flexion contracture, which can prevent the client from successfully wearing and walking with a prosthesis. Placing the client in a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day physically stretches the hip flexor muscles, maintaining joint extension and preventing contracture formation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary complication risk for a client 48 hours post-above-the-knee amputation.
The client is at high risk for hip flexion contractures, which impede future prosthetic use.
Surgical trauma and flexor muscle dominance tend to pull the residual limb into a flexed position.
2
Evaluate the clinical interventions based on their effect on hip joint flexion.
Prone positioning extends the hip joint, while prolonged sitting or pillow elevation flexes the hip joint.
Extension prevents contracture formation, whereas prolonged flexion causes muscle shortening.
3
Select the nursing action that safely prevents contractures while adhering to the standard scope of practice.
Assisting the client into a prone position is the correct, safe, and effective intervention.
It directly counteracts the contracture risk without inappropriately delegating nursing assessments.

Key Concept

Prevention of hip flexion contractures following an above-the-knee amputation requires specific positioning strategies, including periodic prone positioning and avoiding residual limb elevation after the first 24 postoperative hours.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
PreviousPage 50 / 195Next
All practice questions — NCLEX-RN | Examkin