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Question 1741Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) push medication through an established peripheral IV saline lock. Arrange the following steps in the correct order of performance from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first cleanse the port, aspirate and flush with normal saline, administer the medication, flush with normal saline again at the medication's administration rate, and finally clamp the tubing.
The standard evidence-based sequence for administering an IV push medication through a saline lock is the SAS method: Saline, Administer, Saline. First, infection control requires cleansing the port. Second, patency is verified by aspirating for blood and flushing with normal saline to prevent extravasation. Third, the medication is administered at the correct rate. Fourth, a second saline flush clears the line, which must be pushed at the same slow rate to avoid pushing residual medication too quickly. Finally, the line is clamped using positive pressure to prevent blood reflux and subsequent occlusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Cleanse the IV injection port with an antimicrobial swab and allow it to dry completely.
The port is effectively disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of pathogens into the client's bloodstream.
2
Attach a normal saline syringe, aspirate for a blood return, and flush the catheter.
IV patency is confirmed.
Ensures the catheter is correctly placed in the vein and the line is clear, preventing extravasation.
3
Attach the medication syringe and administer the drug over the recommended time.
Medication is delivered safely and therapeutically.
Prevents speed shock and cardiovascular collapse by adhering to the recommended administration rate.
4
Attach a second normal saline syringe and flush the catheter at the same rate the medication was given.
Residual medication is completely cleared from the tubing.
Ensures the complete dose reaches the patient without inadvertently delivering the remaining drug in the tubing too rapidly.
5
Clamp the extension tubing while maintaining positive pressure on the syringe plunger.
The IV line is securely closed off.
Maintains positive pressure inside the catheter, preventing blood reflux and potential clotting.

Key Concept

Safe administration of IV push medications requires the SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) method to ensure line patency, deliver the drug safely, and maintain the integrity of the IV access.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1742Question →

The nurse is observing various clients in an outpatient behavioral health clinic. Match each client behavior or statement to the specific defense mechanism it represents.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A client who is intensely angry at their employer for a recent demotion comes home and yells at their spouse.
A client who harbors deep resentment toward their sibling constantly showers the sibling with exaggerated affection and expensive gifts.
A client consciously decides to stop worrying about a recent relationship breakup so they can focus entirely on studying for an upcoming final exam.
A client who loses their temper and verbally abuses the clinic receptionist later returns with a bouquet of flowers and excessive apologies.

Matches

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Answer

The angry employee yelling at their spouse matches Displacement. The client showing exaggerated affection toward a resented sibling matches Reaction Formation. The client intentionally ignoring a breakup to study matches Suppression. The client bringing flowers after an outburst matches Undoing.
Each client behavior perfectly illustrates a classic presentation of psychological defense mechanisms used to protect the ego from anxiety. Correctly matching them requires understanding the subtle differences, such as directing feelings at a substitute (displacement) versus reversing the feeling entirely (reaction formation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scenario of the client who is angry at their employer.
Matches with Displacement.
The client is shifting negative emotions from a dangerous or powerful figure (employer) to a less threatening target (spouse).
2
Analyze the scenario of the client resenting their sibling.
Matches with Reaction Formation.
The client is hiding their true, socially unacceptable feelings by acting out the extreme opposite emotion.
3
Analyze the scenario of the client focusing on the exam.
Matches with Suppression.
The client is making a deliberate, conscious choice to put aside a stressor to handle a more immediate task.
4
Analyze the scenario of the client yelling at the receptionist and bringing flowers.
Matches with Undoing.
The client is performing an action designed to symbolically cancel out or make amends for a previous inappropriate behavior.

Key Concept

Identifying ego defense mechanisms in clinical and daily scenarios
Question 1743Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes into the infusion, the client reports sudden, severe lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequential order of priority to minimize the risk of further physiological deterioration.

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions is to first stop the transfusion, then replace the tubing and infuse normal saline, followed by assessing the client, notifying the healthcare provider and blood bank, and finally returning the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
In any suspected transfusion reaction, the primary goal is to minimize physiological risk. The first and most critical action is to stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure to the offending antigen. The next priority is to maintain a patent IV line with normal saline using new tubing to allow for emergency medication administration while preventing residual blood from entering the client. Once the immediate source of harm is mitigated and access is secured, the nurse must assess the client's current status to gather clinical data. This assessment data is then communicated to the healthcare provider and the blood bank. Finally, sending the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank is done after all immediate client safety and communication needs are met.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
The infusion of incompatible blood is halted.
This is the most critical first step to limit the amount of incompatible blood entering the systemic circulation, thereby reducing the severity of the acute hemolytic reaction.
2
Replace the blood tubing with a new administration set and initiate an infusion of normal saline.
Intravenous access is maintained without administering residual blood.
Intravenous access is necessary for emergency resuscitation. New tubing must be used because flushing the existing tubing would push the remaining incompatible blood into the client.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and cardiopulmonary status.
Objective clinical data regarding the client's physiological state is obtained.
The nurse needs current baseline data (blood pressure, heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory effort) to determine the severity of shock and to report to the healthcare provider.
4
Notify the prescribing healthcare provider and the blood bank about the suspected reaction.
The medical team and laboratory are alerted to the emergency.
The provider will need to prescribe emergency interventions (e.g., vasopressors, diuretics). The blood bank must be alerted to halt any other potential incompatible transfusions and begin an investigation.
5
Return the discontinued blood bag and attached tubing to the blood bank.
Physical evidence is provided for laboratory analysis.
The blood bank will type and crossmatch the remaining blood in the bag and tubing to identify the exact cause of the hemolytic reaction and prevent future occurrences.

Key Concept

Prioritization of interventions during an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction to reduce risk of systemic compromise.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1744Question →

A nurse on a locked behavioral health unit is caring for an adult client. The client approaches the nurses' station with a raised voice, tightly clenched fists, and demands immediate access to a restricted personal item. When the nurse explains the unit safety policy, the client becomes abruptly escalated, begins aggressively striking the reinforced glass, and shouts threats at the staff. Which of the following initial interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Instruct other clients in the immediate vicinity to relocate to the dayroom.; Maintain a relaxed body posture with hands open and visible while standing slightly at an angle to the client.; Offer the client a concrete choice between retreating to a quiet area or taking an oral PRN antianxiety medication.

Answer

The correct interventions are to relocate other clients to the dayroom, maintain a relaxed and angled body posture, and offer the client a concrete choice of safe alternatives.
The appropriate initial actions for an aggressively escalating client focus on milieu safety, non-threatening engagement, and promoting client autonomy. Relocating bystanders secures the environment. Maintaining an angled, relaxed posture visually communicates that the nurse is not a threat. Finally, offering concrete, safe choices provides the client with a way to regain self-control without resorting to restrictive measures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate environment for safety risks.
Identify that bystanders are present near the escalating client and must be moved.
Ensuring the safety of the milieu and protecting vulnerable clients from potential violence is the first priority.
2
Apply non-verbal de-escalation techniques.
Adopt an open, angled posture rather than a confrontational stance.
Aggressive clients often interpret direct face-to-face positioning and closed off body language as a threat, which can precipitate a physical attack.
3
Implement the least restrictive verbal interventions.
Provide the client with concrete, acceptable choices.
Offering choices gives the client a sense of autonomy and control, which directly counteracts the feelings of powerlessness that often drive aggressive outbursts.

Key Concept

Behavioral Crisis De-escalation and Least Restrictive Interventions
Question 1745Question →

An 82-year-old client is admitted to the medical unit presenting with new-onset severe abdominal cramping and sudden, unexplained confusion. When conducting the physical examination, which action should the primary nurse execute?

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Answer: Evaluate the non-tender abdominal quadrants first, reserving the assessment of the painful region for the final step.

Answer

The nurse should evaluate the non-tender abdominal quadrants first, reserving the assessment of the painful region for the final step.
The correct action demonstrates the fundamental principle of minimizing patient discomfort to obtain accurate assessment data. By examining the non-tender areas first, the nurse prevents early muscle guarding and anxiety, allowing for a thorough evaluation of the entire abdomen before focusing on the primary source of pain.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presentation.
The client is an older adult with acute abdominal pain and sudden onset confusion (delirium).
Identifying the primary symptoms determines the priorities for the physical assessment and necessary interventions.
2
Recall the principles of abdominal assessment regarding localized pain.
The nurse must examine non-painful areas before assessing the specific area of reported pain.
Premature palpation of a tender area causes severe discomfort and involuntary muscle guarding (rigidity), making the remainder of the abdominal examination impossible to conduct accurately.
3
Evaluate the alternative actions for safety and procedural accuracy.
Altering the assessment sequence (palpating before auscultating), delegating baseline assessments to UAP, and dismissing acute confusion as normal aging are all incorrect and potentially harmful actions.
Eliminating incorrect clinical practices ensures the selected action aligns with evidence-based nursing standards.

Key Concept

Principles of Abdominal Assessment and Clinical Judgment
Question 1746Question →

A client recovering from abdominal surgery has a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion of 0.45% sodium chloride. The nurse brings a syringe containing a scheduled dose of IV ondansetron to the bedside. Which of the following actions is the most critical for the nurse to perform before administering this medication through the Y-site port?

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Answer: Confirm that the IV ondansetron is chemically compatible with the 0.45% sodium chloride solution.

Answer

The nurse must verify that the IV ondansetron is chemically compatible with the infusing 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
Verifying compatibility between an infusing IV fluid and an IV bolus medication is a fundamental safety step. If incompatible substances mix, they can form precipitates that may occlude the IV catheter or cause a life-threatening embolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the planned clinical task.
The nurse needs to administer an IV push medication into an actively infusing primary IV line.
Understanding the medication route and current line setup dictates the necessary safety precautions.
2
Recognize the risk of intravenous drug-fluid interactions.
Mixing incompatible medications and fluids can cause crystallization or precipitation in the tubing.
Precipitates can occlude the IV catheter or enter the client's bloodstream as a dangerous embolus.
3
Determine the priority safety action prior to administration.
The nurse must consult a standard drug compatibility resource to check the medication against the primary fluid.
This is a fundamental safety step to ensure the ondansetron will not adversely react with the 0.45% sodium chloride.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Question 1747Question →

While working in a hospice unit, a nurse is caring for a client with metastatic bone cancer who is experiencing periods of severe breakthrough pain. The client's adult child approaches the nurse in the hallway, crying, and states, 'I cannot stand seeing my parent suffer like this anymore. The provider said there are only a few days left. Can't you just give an extra-large dose of morphine to make this end faster?' What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

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Answer: It must be agonizing to watch someone you love suffer. Let's review the current plan for managing the pain.

Answer

The nurse should acknowledge and validate the family member's emotional distress while redirecting the conversation to collaborative comfort measures.
The correct statement demonstrates the therapeutic communication techniques of acknowledging feelings and offering collaboration. By validating the adult child's emotional pain without judgment, the nurse builds rapport and trust. Redirecting the conversation to the interventions being used addresses the root of the family member's distress—the client's suffering—without becoming defensive or arguing about the unethical request to hasten death.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the family member's statement and underlying emotions.
The family member is expressing profound distress, helplessness, and anticipatory grief regarding the client's physical suffering.
Therapeutic communication requires identifying the underlying emotional state rather than just reacting to the literal words spoken.
2
Evaluate the nursing response options against therapeutic communication principles.
Identify responses that use therapeutic techniques (such as validation and reflection) versus non-therapeutic barriers (such as arguing, probing, or providing false reassurance).
The nurse must address the emotional pain and build trust before addressing the literal, albeit unethical, request to hasten death.
3
Select the most therapeutic action.
Choose the response that validates the emotional pain ('It must be agonizing...') and offers collaboration on comfort.
This approach maintains trust and professional boundaries while providing the necessary emotional support.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication in High-Stress Scenarios
Question 1748Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department with severe acute alcohol intoxication. The client is lethargic and suddenly begins to vomit. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate airway protection (turning the client), followed by respiratory assessment, preparation for circulatory support (IV access), and finally the administration of prescribed treatments.
In any emergency scenario, the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework dictates the order of prioritization. When a lethargic, intoxicated client vomits, the most immediate, life-threatening risk is pulmonary aspiration, which compromises the airway. Therefore, the very first action must be a rapid physical intervention to protect the airway by turning the client to a lateral position. Once the airway is secured, the nurse proceeds to 'B' (Breathing) by assessing the respiratory rate and oxygen saturation. Following this, the nurse addresses 'C' (Circulation) and prepares for intervention by establishing IV access. Finally, the nurse implements the prescribed medical treatment by administering intravenous fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Turn the client into a lateral (side-lying) position.
The airway is protected from aspiration of vomitus.
Airway protection is the absolute highest priority in the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), especially for an intoxicated, lethargic client who cannot independently protect their own airway.
2
Assess the client's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
The client's breathing status is formally evaluated.
After securing the airway from immediate obstruction, the nurse assesses the adequacy of breathing and ventilation.
3
Establish peripheral intravenous (IV) access.
A route for fluids and medications is secured.
Establishing IV access addresses the 'Circulation' component and prepares the client for necessary emergency interventions.
4
Administer prescribed intravenous fluids.
The client receives ordered hydration and treatment.
Medical treatments are safely administered only after life-threatening airway and breathing issues have been resolved and IV access is secured.

Key Concept

Prioritization using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework during acute substance intoxication emergencies.
Question 1749Question →

A clinic nurse is preparing to perform a well-child physical examination on a 9-month-old infant who is currently sleeping calmly in the caregiver's arms. Arrange the following assessment steps in the most appropriate clinical sequence. All options must be used.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to progress from the least invasive to the most distressing procedures: observing the infant first, auscultating the heart and lungs while quiet, palpating the body, and finally examining the ears and mouth.
When performing a physical assessment on an infant, the normal adult sequence must be altered to accommodate their developmental stage. The nurse must move from the least invasive to the most invasive procedures to maximize the time the infant is quiet. Observation is done first from a distance. Auscultation of the heart and lungs follows immediately, as these require a quiet child for accurate evaluation. Palpation is performed next because physical touch may agitate the infant. Finally, traumatic or distressing procedures, such as examining the ears, eyes, and mouth, are saved for the very end because they almost always provoke crying, which ruins the opportunity to gather accurate baseline cardiopulmonary data.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the least invasive assessment technique.
Observation (inspection) of skin color, posture, and breathing pattern requires no physical contact.
Performing visual inspection first prevents waking the infant and altering their baseline clinical state.
2
Determine the next quietest procedure.
Auscultating the heart and lungs should be done second.
Accurate assessment of heart murmurs and breath sounds is impossible if the infant is crying, so it must be done while they are still calm.
3
Sequence the remaining techniques based on invasiveness.
Palpation is performed third, followed by the examination of the ears and mouth.
Looking into the ears and mouth is highly distressing for an infant and will likely cause crying, so it must be deferred until the very end of the examination.

Key Concept

Lifespan Variations in Physical Assessment Sequence
Question 1750Question →

An older adult client is recovering on a telemetry unit two hours after undergoing a left femoral cardiac catheterization. The client expresses mild back pain from prolonged bed rest and demonstrates new-onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the immediate care plan? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Offer the client a bedpan for elimination to avoid bending the affected left leg.; Guide the client through deep breathing and relaxation exercises to help manage back discomfort.

Answer

The correct actions are to offer the client a bedpan for elimination and to guide them through deep breathing and relaxation exercises.
Offering a bedpan allows the client to eliminate without getting out of bed or bending the affected leg, which perfectly aligns with the strict positioning requirements following a femoral procedure. Additionally, guiding the client through deep breathing exercises provides a safe, effective, non-pharmacological comfort measure to manage back pain when turning is strictly contraindicated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's strict post-procedure positioning requirements.
Following a left femoral cardiac catheterization, the client must remain supine with the left leg completely straight to prevent severe bleeding at the arterial puncture site.
Maintaining vascular integrity is the highest priority.
2
Address the client's report of back pain.
Because the client cannot be rolled or repositioned to relieve pressure, alternative non-pharmacological comfort measures like deep breathing and relaxation must be utilized.
Basic comfort must be maintained without compromising the required therapeutic positioning.
3
Evaluate the new-onset confusion.
Sudden confusion is an acute clinical change requiring direct RN assessment. It cannot be dismissed as normal aging, cannot be managed immediately by applying restraints, and its assessment cannot be delegated.
Confusion in an older adult often points to hypoxia, stroke, or infection, necessitating a higher level of clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Basic care and comfort post-femoral catheterization requires maintaining a straight extremity to prevent bleeding. Comfort and elimination must be managed without altering this position. Furthermore, new-onset confusion in older adults requires acute nursing assessment and is never a normal age-related change.
Question 1751Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse implement to reduce the client's risk for hip dislocation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs while resting in bed.; Ensure the client's operative leg remains in a neutral position to prevent internal rotation.; Instruct the client to use an elevated toilet seat when using the restroom.

Answer

The correct actions are placing an abduction pillow between the legs, ensuring the operative leg remains in a neutral position, and instructing the client to use an elevated toilet seat.
Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, the client is at high risk for joint dislocation if the hip is flexed past 90 degrees, adducted across the body's midline, or internally rotated. Using an abduction pillow effectively prevents adduction. Maintaining a neutral leg position prevents internal rotation. Instructing the client to use an elevated toilet seat prevents the hips from flexing more than 90 degrees when sitting down. Implementing all three of these actions directly reduces the risk of the surgical joint dislocating.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and the specific risk involved.
The client had a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, which carries a high risk for posterior hip dislocation if specific movement precautions are not followed.
Understanding the mechanism of injury allows for the identification of safe versus unsafe positioning.
2
Identify the specific movements that cause posterior hip dislocation.
The movements to strictly avoid are hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
These positions place excessive stress on the posterior surgical joint capsule, potentially popping the prosthesis out of place.
3
Evaluate each nursing action against the identified movement precautions.
Using an abduction pillow prevents adduction, a neutral leg position prevents internal rotation, and an elevated toilet seat prevents excessive flexion. Low chairs and crossing legs violate these rules.
Selecting only the interventions that avoid flexion >90 degrees, adduction, and internal rotation ensures the risk for dislocation is effectively minimized.

Key Concept

Postoperative hip precautions for posterior arthroplasty to prevent dislocation
Question 1752Question →

A nurse is monitoring a postoperative client for signs of hemorrhage. Which of the following assessment findings is the earliest physiological indicator that the client is developing hypovolemic shock?

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Answer: Mild tachycardia and restlessness

Answer

Mild tachycardia and restlessness are the earliest indicators of hypovolemic shock.
In the early, compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated in response to decreased blood volume. This results in an increased heart rate (mild tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, and decreased oxygen delivery to the cerebral cortex often manifests early as restlessness, mild anxiety, or confusion. Blood pressure typically remains normal during this initial phase.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary condition being assessed
The nurse is looking for early signs of hypovolemic shock due to potential postoperative hemorrhage.
Understanding the timeline of shock (early vs. late) is crucial for accurate assessment.
2
Evaluate physiological compensatory mechanisms
In early shock, the sympathetic nervous system activates, causing an increased heart rate to maintain cardiac output, and slight hypoxia to the brain causes altered mental status like restlessness.
The body compensates before blood pressure drops.
3
Differentiate early from late signs
Hypotension, lethargy, and cyanosis only occur after compensatory mechanisms fail.
Waiting for a drop in blood pressure delays critical life-saving interventions.

Key Concept

Early indicators of hypovolemic shock include subtle vital sign changes (mild tachycardia) and altered mental status (restlessness) prior to a drop in blood pressure.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 1753Question →

A nurse at a disaster relief shelter is caring for an individual whose neighborhood was completely destroyed by a severe tornado three days ago. Since arriving at the shelter, the individual has been intensely agitated and sobbing inconsolably. This morning, the nurse observes that the individual appears suddenly serene, hands a cherished piece of family jewelry to a shelter volunteer, and states, 'I have finally figured out how to solve all my problems permanently.' What is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

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Answer: Perform an immediate and explicit assessment regarding thoughts, intent, and plans for self-harm.

Answer

The priority action is to perform an immediate and explicit assessment regarding thoughts, intent, and plans for self-harm.
A sudden, unexplained shift from severe agitation to serenity, combined with giving away cherished possessions and making statements about permanent solutions, are critical warning signs of a formulated suicide plan. The relief of making a definitive plan to end their life can cause an individual in severe crisis to appear artificially peaceful. The nurse's immediate priority must be to secure the individual's safety by directly assessing for suicidal ideation, intent, and a specific plan.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical cues presented by the individual in the scenario.
The individual exhibits a sudden onset of serenity, is giving away prized possessions, and makes a veiled statement about a permanent solution.
Identifying sudden, drastic changes in behavior during an acute crisis is essential for accurate triage and risk assessment.
2
Correlate the observed clinical cues with psychiatric risk factors.
These specific behaviors strongly suggest the individual has made a concrete decision to commit suicide.
A sudden lifting of deep despair often means the person feels a sense of relief because they have formulated a lethal, finalized plan.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the identified risk.
The immediate priority is to directly assess the individual's risk for self-harm to ensure physical safety.
Client safety and the preservation of life always supersede other psychosocial interventions or long-term recovery planning.

Key Concept

Suicide Risk Assessment in Crisis Intervention
Question 1754Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with severe obsessive-compulsive disorder on a behavioral health unit. The client is tearful and states, 'I spent three hours washing my hands this morning. I feel like my mind is completely broken, and I am never going to get better.' Which of the following responses by the nurse demonstrate the appropriate use of therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It must be incredibly exhausting to feel like you have no control over these urges.; Tell me more about what you are experiencing when you say your mind is completely broken.; I will stay and sit with you for a while right now as you are feeling this overwhelmed.

Answer

The correct therapeutic responses include validating the client's feelings of exhaustion, exploring their statement about feeling broken, and offering the nurse's presence.
Effective therapeutic communication in psychiatric nursing focuses on validating the client's emotional experience, encouraging further exploration of their thoughts, and demonstrating unconditional support. Acknowledging the client's exhaustion reflects their feelings and builds empathy. Asking them to elaborate on feeling 'broken' uses the technique of exploration, which helps the client articulate their internal state without feeling rushed. Offering to sit with the client utilizes 'offering self,' which provides a comforting, non-judgmental presence when a client is highly distressed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and emotional state.
The client is experiencing severe distress, hopelessness, and helplessness related to their compulsive behaviors.
Identifying the client's emotional needs determines the most appropriate therapeutic approach.
2
Evaluate each response option for evidence-based therapeutic communication techniques.
Validating exhaustion, asking for elaboration on feeling 'broken', and offering self are therapeutic. Minimizing worries and asking 'why' are non-therapeutic barriers.
Therapeutic communication should foster trust, encourage expression, and avoid judgment or false hope.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication
Question 1755Question →

A nurse is evaluating a 64-year-old client who is 3 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. The client reports new-onset, severe lower back pain and requests to have the head of the bed raised to eat a snack. The client's current vital signs are: blood pressure 98/60 mm Hg (baseline 135/82 mm Hg), heart rate 114/min, and respiratory rate 20/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the client in a flat, supine position with the right leg straight and inspect the right flank and groin.

Answer

The nurse must maintain the client in a flat, supine position with the right leg straight and immediately inspect the flank and groin for signs of bleeding.
The client's presentation of new-onset severe back pain, hypotension, and tachycardia shortly after a femoral artery procedure is highly suspicious for a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, where blood leaks backward into the retroperitoneal space. Maintaining the client in a flat, supine position with the affected leg completely straight is essential to prevent dislodging the clot at the femoral puncture site. The nurse must immediately assess the groin and flank for swelling, firmness, or ecchymosis (Grey Turner's sign) to confirm the bleeding and intervene effectively.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital sign trends.
The client is experiencing severe back pain, a significant drop in blood pressure, and new-onset tachycardia 3 hours after a femoral artery procedure.
Recognizing the combination of these specific symptoms differentiates an expected minor discomfort from a critical, life-threatening complication (retroperitoneal hemorrhage).
2
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on risk reduction principles.
The nurse must prevent further arterial bleeding and assess the extent of the complication before leaving the client or calling the provider.
Keeping the affected leg completely straight and the bed flat prevents mechanical disruption of the femoral clot, which is the immediate priority to reduce the risk of exsanguination.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Recognizing and preventing retroperitoneal hemorrhage post-cardiac catheterization
Question 1756Question →

A 70-year-old client is recovering in the telemetry unit 3 hours after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) utilizing the right femoral artery approach. The client suddenly reports severe lower back pain and generalized weakness. The nurse observes that the client's blood pressure is 84/50 mm Hg and heart rate is 118 beats per minute. A stat arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which action must the nurse take immediately to mitigate the risk of further physiological decompensation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare to administer rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation.

Answer

Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare to administer rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation.
The client's presentation of sudden lower back pain, hypotension, and tachycardia shortly after a femoral artery procedure is a classic clinical picture of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. The accompanying arterial blood gas results demonstrate metabolic acidosis, which occurs secondary to poor tissue perfusion and lactic acid buildup during hypovolemic shock. Immediate provider notification and rapid fluid volume replacement are essential to stabilize the client and prevent life-threatening cardiovascular collapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presenting symptoms and vital signs.
The client exhibits severe lower back pain, hypotension (84/50 mm Hg), and tachycardia (118 beats per minute).
These are hallmark indicators of retroperitoneal bleeding, a severe complication of femoral artery access that quickly leads to hypovolemic shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG demonstrates a pH of 7.30 (acidemia), PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg (normal), and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L (low).
These values confirm uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which occurs when poor tissue perfusion from shock causes lactic acid accumulation in the bloodstream.
3
Determine the priority risk reduction intervention.
The nurse must immediately notify the healthcare provider and prepare for rapid intravenous fluid administration.
Restoring intravascular volume is the critical first step to stabilize the client's hemodynamic status and prevent cardiovascular collapse.

Key Concept

Identifying and managing retroperitoneal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock following femoral artery catheterization.
Question 1757Question →

A community psychiatric nurse is conducting an initial assessment at the home of a client with severe obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The client's spouse reports that the client must arrange all living room furniture in specific geometric patterns before sitting down, a process that takes hours and causes extreme exhaustion. As the nurse and spouse are talking, the client begins moving a heavy armchair to start the ritual. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this early stage of the therapeutic relationship?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Allow the client to complete the furniture arrangement without interruption.

Answer

Allow the client to complete the furniture arrangement without interruption.
In the initial stages of treating a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), compulsions serve as the primary mechanism to reduce overwhelming anxiety. Preventing the client from completing a ritual before they have learned new, effective coping strategies will strip away their only defense and can trigger a severe panic attack. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to allow the ritual while establishing a trusting therapeutic alliance. Later in the treatment process, the nurse and client will work collaboratively to gradually set limits on the time spent performing these behaviors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's diagnosis and current behavior.
The client is diagnosed with severe OCD and is actively engaging in a compulsive ritual (arranging furniture) designed to manage profound internal anxiety.
Understanding the psychological function of the compulsion is essential for selecting an intervention that is both safe and therapeutic.
2
Evaluate the timing of the intervention.
This is the initial assessment phase of treatment. The client has not yet been taught alternative anxiety management or coping strategies.
Interventions for OCD must be staged appropriately. Prematurely interrupting a ritual without replacement skills causes harm.
3
Determine the safest and most therapeutic initial action.
The nurse must allow the ritual to proceed to prevent a severe panic attack, using this time to maintain a calm, non-judgmental presence.
Until new coping mechanisms are established, the ritual remains the client's primary defense against overwhelming psychiatric distress.

Key Concept

Management of Compulsions in Early Treatment of OCD
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1758Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. The client suddenly develops severe chills, lower back pain, and dyspnea. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority from first to perform to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: first, stop the blood transfusion immediately; second, maintain the IV line with new tubing and 0.9% sodium chloride; third, assess the client's vital signs; and fourth, notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
In any acute allergic or hemolytic reaction to an intravenous therapy, the absolute priority is to stop the offending agent immediately. Following this, the nurse must maintain IV access with normal saline using new tubing so that emergency medications can be administered safely. Only after securing the line and halting the harm should the nurse perform a full assessment to gather data, which is then relayed to the healthcare provider to obtain further medical orders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary threat and stop the offending agent.
The blood transfusion is stopped immediately.
Chills, lower back pain, and dyspnea are classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. Stopping the blood prevents further physiological harm.
2
Secure intravenous access for emergency interventions.
A normal saline infusion is started using completely new IV tubing.
The client may require emergency medications or fluid resuscitation to maintain blood pressure and urine output. New tubing ensures no residual blood is flushed into the client.
3
Gather clinical data regarding the client's status.
Vital signs and respiratory status are assessed.
The severity of the reaction must be evaluated to provide the healthcare provider with an accurate clinical picture.
4
Escalate the situation to the appropriate interdisciplinary team members.
The healthcare provider and blood bank are notified.
The provider needs to prescribe emergency medical interventions, and the blood bank must initiate a transfusion reaction investigation.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Interventions in Acute Transfusion Reactions
Question 1759Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who exhibits sudden carpopedal spasms, facial twitching, and a prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram. The client's serum calcium level is 6.4 mg/dL6.4\text{ mg/dL} (1.6 mmol/L1.6\text{ mmol/L}). The healthcare provider urgently prescribes '1 gram1\text{ gram} Calcium Chloride IV piggyback over 10 minutes10\text{ minutes}'. The client's only vascular access is a 22-gauge22\text{-gauge} peripheral intravenous (PIV) catheter located in the dorsum of the right hand. Which of the following is the PRIORITY action by the nurse?

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Answer: Contact the healthcare provider to request changing the prescription to intravenous calcium gluconate

Answer

The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to request changing the prescription to intravenous calcium gluconate, which is safe for peripheral administration.
The correct answer recommends requesting a prescription change to calcium gluconate. Calcium chloride is highly hyperosmolar and a severe vesicant. If extravasation occurs, especially from a small fragile vein like a 22-gauge22\text{-gauge} in the hand, it causes catastrophic tissue necrosis and sloughing. Therefore, calcium chloride is generally restricted to central venous administration. Calcium gluconate provides the same therapeutic cation but is significantly less irritating, making it the preferred and safe choice for urgent peripheral intravenous administration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and laboratory data.
The client has severe, symptomatic hypocalcemia (6.4 mg/dL6.4\text{ mg/dL}) with cardiac involvement (prolonged QT interval), requiring urgent intravenous calcium replacement.
Identifying the severity of the condition establishes the urgency of the intervention; delays can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medication and route against safety parameters.
The provider prescribed calcium chloride to be given via a 22-gauge22\text{-gauge} peripheral IV line in the hand.
Nurses must verify the pharmacological safety of the route for the specific medication ordered.
3
Synthesize pharmacological knowledge regarding calcium chloride administration.
Calcium chloride is a severe vesicant and hyperosmolar solution that poses a massive risk of tissue necrosis if extravasated. It is strongly recommended for central line administration only.
Administering a severe vesicant through a small peripheral vein in the hand is clinically unsafe.
4
Determine the safest immediate intervention.
The nurse must contact the provider to request calcium gluconate, which provides the necessary electrolyte but is significantly less irritating to tissues.
This action safely addresses both the immediate physiological threat and the pharmacological safety hazard without delaying care.

Key Concept

Safe parenteral administration of calcium salts and prevention of vesicant extravasation
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1760Question →

A college student rushes into the university health clinic, visibly trembling and crying hysterically. The student shouts, "I was just abruptly evicted from my apartment and I have absolutely nowhere to go!" The nurse notes the student is hyperventilating with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

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Answer: Move the student to a quiet, private area and provide direct coaching for slow, deep breathing.

Answer

The nurse should first move the student to a quiet, private area and provide direct coaching for slow, deep breathing to stabilize the acute panic response.
The correct action focuses on immediate physiological and psychological stabilization. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the physical symptom of hyperventilation (impaired breathing pattern) is the most urgent priority. Moving the client to a quiet area reduces sensory overload, and coaching their breathing directly treats the acute panic, allowing them to eventually reach a calm state where they can discuss housing solutions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's immediate physiological and psychological state.
The student is hyperventilating at 34 breaths per minute and experiencing severe acute panic due to a situational crisis.
Identifying life-threatening or severe physiological instability is always the first step in the nursing process.
2
Determine the highest priority intervention using Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
Physiological needs (breathing and stabilization of panic) take precedence over safety and security needs (finding housing).
Clients in acute crisis cannot effectively process information or problem-solve until their physiological arousal and panic are reduced.
3
Select the intervention that directly addresses the highest priority.
Coaching the student through slow, deep breathing in a quiet environment de-escalates the acute physical symptoms.
This action stabilizes the client, creating a foundation for subsequent therapeutic communication and problem-solving.

Key Concept

In crisis intervention, the nurse must prioritize physiological stabilization and safety (such as managing hyperventilation) before progressing to problem-solving or assessing long-term coping strategies.
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