Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 441Question →

During the administration of packed red blood cells, a client abruptly reports intense lower back pain, sudden chills, and difficulty breathing. To minimize further physiological injury, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence of execution.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, disconnect the blood tubing, initiate normal saline with new tubing, assess the client, and finally notify the provider and blood bank.
In the event of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction (indicated by lower back pain, chills, and dyspnea), the nurse's first action must always be to stop the transfusion to limit physiological damage. Next, the nurse must disconnect the blood tubing at the hub and replace it with new tubing primed with normal saline to keep the vein open for emergency drugs without pushing residual blood into the client. Once the line is secure, the nurse assesses the client's vital signs to determine the severity of the reaction. Finally, with the client stabilized and assessment data gathered, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider to obtain orders and contacts the blood bank to initiate a reaction investigation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the transfusion
Prevents further exposure to the reactive blood product.
The priority in any acute allergic or hemolytic reaction is to remove the source of the insult.
2
Disconnect the blood tubing and attach new normal saline tubing
Secures patent intravenous access without flushing residual blood into the client.
Using the old tubing would push remaining incompatible blood into the circulation, worsening the reaction.
3
Assess vital signs and oxygenation
Gathers essential clinical data on the client's current status.
The provider will need accurate, up-to-date vital signs to prescribe appropriate emergency medications.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank
Initiates medical intervention and laboratory investigation.
Medical directives are required for further treatment, and the blood bank must analyze the remaining product for crossmatch errors.

Key Concept

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction Protocol
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 442Question →

A young adult client with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the critical care unit with severe lethargy, a fruity breath odor, and deep, rapid respirations at 32/min32\text{/min}. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 128/min128\text{/min} and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg88/54\text{ mm Hg}. Laboratory data show a blood glucose level of 580 mg/dL580\text{ mg/dL} and a serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L5.2\text{ mEq/L}. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates a pH\text{pH} of 7.157.15, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}, PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 96 mm Hg96\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 9 mEq/L9\text{ mEq/L}. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

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Answer: Rapidly infuse a large volume of an isotonic saline solution.

Answer

The correct answer is to rapidly infuse a large volume of an isotonic saline solution to treat the underlying hypovolemic shock.
The client is exhibiting signs of severe hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia) caused by the massive osmotic diuresis associated with DKA. The absolute highest priority in this scenario is to stabilize the cardiovascular system and restore organ perfusion by rapidly administering isotonic intravenous fluids. Once intravascular volume is stabilized, insulin therapy can be safely initiated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and diagnostic data.
The client has extreme hyperglycemia, acidemia, Kussmaul respirations, tachycardia, and hypotension.
Identifying these classic signs confirms a diagnosis of severe Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) complicated by hypovolemic shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG reveals a primary metabolic acidosis (low bicarbonate and pH) with partial respiratory compensation (low carbon dioxide) and adequate oxygenation.
Understanding the acid-base balance confirms that the hyperventilation is a necessary compensatory mechanism, not a respiratory deficit.
3
Evaluate the hemodynamic status to determine immediate life threats.
The blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg88/54\text{ mm Hg} and heart rate of 128/min128\text{/min} indicate severe volume depletion resulting from glucose-induced osmotic diuresis.
Recognizing signs of shock dictates that restoring circulatory volume takes precedence over all other therapies.
4
Prioritize nursing interventions based on physiological needs.
Aggressive fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids is identified as the first action.
Intravascular volume must be restored before administering insulin to prevent fatal cardiovascular collapse and severe intracellular shifts of fluid and electrolytes.

Key Concept

In the management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) with hypovolemia, immediate aggressive fluid resuscitation is required prior to continuous insulin therapy to prevent cardiovascular collapse.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 443Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is lethargic with Kussmaul respirations, a blood glucose of 640 mg/dL, and an arterial blood pH of 7.18. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the priority order they should be implemented.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first initiate fluid resuscitation, then verify a safe serum potassium level, followed by initiating a continuous insulin infusion, and finally adding dextrose to the fluids when blood glucose decreases to 250 mg/dL.
In the management of DKA, the immediate priority is to restore circulating volume and tissue perfusion with isotonic fluids. Next, because insulin therapy drives potassium into the intracellular space, the nurse must ensure the serum potassium is greater than 3.3 mEq/L to prevent fatal arrhythmias. Once confirmed, continuous regular insulin is initiated to correct the acidosis and lower blood glucose. Finally, to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema, dextrose is added to the IV fluids when the blood glucose level drops to 250 mg/dL.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Initiate fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Restores intravascular volume and organ perfusion.
Hypovolemic shock from osmotic diuresis is the most immediate life-threatening complication in DKA.
2
Review the initial serum potassium level.
Ensures the client's potassium is safely above 3.3 mEq/L.
Administering insulin before correcting severe hypokalemia can trigger fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
3
Administer a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin.
Inhibits ketogenesis and slowly normalizes blood glucose.
Insulin is required to correct the underlying metabolic acidosis, but is only safe after fluids and potassium are addressed.
4
Add 5% dextrose to the maintenance intravenous fluids.
Prevents blood glucose from dropping below 150-200 mg/dL.
A rapid drop in blood glucose can cause fluid shifts leading to life-threatening cerebral edema.

Key Concept

Clinical Prioritization and Protocol Management in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 444Question →

A client admitted with severe hypotension requires a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine. The healthcare provider's prescription is for a dose of 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client's current weight is 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy provides a premixed IV bag containing 400 mg400 \text{ mg} of dopamine dissolved in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse program the continuous IV infusion pump?

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Answer: 15

Answer

The correct infusion rate is 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}.
The correct answer is 1515. To solve this complex calculation, follow these sequential steps: First, convert the client's weight to kilograms (176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}). Next, find the per-minute microgram dose (5 mcg/kg/min×80 kg=400 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 80 \text{ kg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}). Then, convert this to an hourly dose (400 mcg×60 minutes=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}). Since the drug is supplied in milligrams, convert micrograms to milligrams (24,000÷1,000=24 mg/hr24,000 \div 1,000 = 24 \text{ mg/hr}). Finally, determine the concentration of the IV bag (400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1.6 \text{ mg/mL}) and divide the hourly dose by this concentration to get the final flow rate (24 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=15 mL/hr24 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6 \text{ mg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 80 \text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight to be precisely measured in kilograms.
2
Calculate the required dose in micrograms per minute.
5 mcg/kg/min×80 kg=400 mcg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 80 \text{ kg} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
This determines the total amount of medication the client requires every minute based on their body weight.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Continuous IV infusion pumps are programmed in hours, not minutes.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
24,000 mcg÷1,000 mcg/mg=24 mg/hr24,000 \text{ mcg} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 24 \text{ mg/hr}
The available medication is supplied in milligrams, so the units must match before final calculation.
5
Calculate the volume required to deliver the hourly dose based on the available concentration.
24 mg/hr÷(400 mg250 mL)=24 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=15 mL/hr24 \text{ mg/hr} \div \left( \frac{400 \text{ mg}}{250 \text{ mL}} \right) = 24 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6 \text{ mg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This provides the final volumetric flow rate needed for the infusion pump.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous dosage calculation and unit conversion
Question 445Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of post-procedure complications? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Position the client on the right side with a rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site.; Maintain the client on strict bed rest for 2 to 4 hours following the procedure.; Assess vital signs frequently and monitor for sudden abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.

Answer

The appropriate actions are positioning the client on the right side with a towel under the site, maintaining strict bed rest for 2 to 4 hours, and monitoring vital signs along with assessing for right shoulder pain.
Following a liver biopsy, the primary risk is hemorrhage due to the liver's high vascularity. Interventions must focus on promoting hemostasis and early detection of bleeding. Placing the client on their right side with a towel under the ribs applies direct mechanical pressure to the liver capsule. Strict bed rest minimizes intra-abdominal pressure changes that could dislodge a clot. Frequent vital sign checks identify early shock, while right shoulder pain is a critical sign of blood irritating the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and its primary associated risks.
A percutaneous liver biopsy involves inserting a needle into the highly vascular liver, making internal hemorrhage the most significant and immediate life-threatening complication.
Identifying the primary risk dictates which nursing interventions must be prioritized for complication prevention.
2
Evaluate each positioning and activity option against the risk of hemorrhage.
Positioning on the right side with a towel applies necessary pressure to stop bleeding. Bed rest prevents clot disruption. Left lateral positioning is incorrect as it removes necessary pressure.
Correct positioning and activity restriction are the primary physical methods to achieve hemostasis post-biopsy.
3
Evaluate assessment techniques and monitoring strategies.
Frequent vital signs and watching for referred right shoulder pain are essential to detect internal bleeding. Palpating the abdomen before auscultating is the wrong sequence and dangerous post-biopsy.
Standardized assessment sequences must be maintained, and signs of insidious complications (like referred pain from phrenic nerve irritation) must be recognized early.

Key Concept

Post-procedure risk reduction for highly vascular organ biopsies focuses on mechanical compression (positioning), activity restriction, and early recognition of internal hemorrhage.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 446Question →

While rounding on a medical-surgical unit, a nurse assesses a client admitted with chronic heart failure. The client suddenly exhibits profound respiratory distress, orthopnea, and severe anxiety. Assessment reveals an oxygen saturation of 82% on room air, diffuse bilateral crackles, and the expectoration of pink, frothy sputum. Arrange the following collaborative and independent nursing actions in the correct order of priority. All options must be used.

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions is: position the client upright with legs dangling, deliver high-flow oxygen, assess blood pressure and cardiac rhythm, inject the intravenous loop diuretic, and finally, place the indwelling urinary catheter.
This sequence adheres to the nursing process and the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework for acute decompensation. Immediate physical positioning facilitates lung expansion and reduces preload. Oxygenation directly treats the resulting severe hypoxemia. Hemodynamic assessment must precede the administration of potent preload-reducing medications to ensure adequate organ perfusion. Finally, catheter placement serves as the evaluative measure for the diuretic therapy, making it the final action in this emergency sequence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assist the client into a high Fowler's position with their legs dangling over the edge of the bed.
Decreases venous return to the heart and allows for maximum lung expansion.
Airway and breathing mechanics take immediate precedence. This action requires only seconds to perform and rapidly shifts fluid away from the central circulation.
2
Deliver 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather device to address hypoxemia.
Increases alveolar oxygen tension and forces oxygen across the fluid barrier in the lungs.
The client's oxygen saturation of 82% and pink, frothy sputum indicate acute pulmonary edema with severe gas exchange impairment. Immediate oxygenation is vital for survival.
3
Obtain a baseline blood pressure measurement and initiate continuous electrocardiogram monitoring.
Establishes a hemodynamic baseline and screens for life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Before administering medications that drastically reduce circulating volume and preload, the nurse must verify the client is not experiencing profound hypotension or cardiovascular collapse.
4
Inject the prescribed rapid-acting loop diuretic intravenously.
Removes excess fluid volume and relieves acute pulmonary congestion.
Diuretics are the definitive pharmacological treatment for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, acting to rapidly offload fluid from the lungs.
5
Place an indwelling urinary catheter to strictly monitor diuresis.
Facilitates accurate measurement of massive urine output and prevents bladder injury.
Intravenous loop diuretics cause rapid and substantial urine production. A catheter evaluates the medication's effectiveness, but it is an invasive procedure that ranks lowest in immediate life-saving priority.

Key Concept

In acute pulmonary edema, immediate nursing priorities follow the ABC framework: optimize breathing mechanics via positioning, deliver high-concentration oxygen, assess circulation (blood pressure), and finally intervene with pharmacological fluid offloading.
Question 447Question →

An older adult client is recovering in the cardiac intensive care unit following an acute anterior myocardial infarction. During the morning assessment, the nurse suspects the client is developing early cardiogenic shock. Which of the following clinical findings support this complication? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Urine output of 22 mL over the past hour; New-onset agitation and restlessness; Apical pulse of 118 beats per minute

Answer

The clinical findings supporting cardiogenic shock include a low urine output (22 mL/hr), new-onset agitation and restlessness, and tachycardia (apical pulse of 118 beats per minute).
Cardiogenic shock represents severe pump failure, severely limiting forward blood flow. The body attempts to compensate through sympathetic nervous system activation, resulting in an increased heart rate. End-organ hypoperfusion quickly manifests as altered mental status (restlessness and agitation) due to brain hypoxia, and decreased urine output (less than 30 mL/hr) due to compromised renal blood flow.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary pathophysiology of cardiogenic shock.
Cardiogenic shock involves severe impairment of the heart's pumping ability, leading to significantly decreased cardiac output and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Understanding the mechanism of pump failure provides the foundation for anticipating clinical manifestations.
2
Evaluate the compensatory mechanisms attempting to maintain cardiac output.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
This explains the rapid apical pulse and explains why the skin would be cool and clammy, ruling out warm and flushed extremities.
3
Assess indicators of end-organ perfusion.
Decreased blood flow to the brain causes altered mental status (restlessness), and decreased flow to the kidneys drops urine output below the minimal adequate threshold of 30 mL/hr.
Organ dysfunction confirms that the compensatory mechanisms are failing to provide adequate systemic circulation.
4
Analyze blood pressure changes specific to cardiogenic shock.
Because the heart cannot eject a normal stroke volume (lowering systolic pressure) and blood vessels constrict (raising diastolic pressure), the pulse pressure narrows.
This differentiates pump failure from distributive shock types or neurological conditions that might widen the pulse pressure.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Cardiogenic Shock
Question 448Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving continuous gastric suctioning for the past 48 hours to manage a small bowel obstruction. The client reports lightheadedness and a new onset of tingling around the mouth and fingers. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis shows a pH of 7.54, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 41 mm Hg, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 34 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Evaluate the client's cardiac rhythm and assess for muscle spasms.

Answer

Evaluate the client's cardiac rhythm and assess for muscle spasms.
The correct action directly addresses the life-threatening physiological consequences of metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric acid leads to metabolic alkalosis, which subsequently causes potassium to shift into cells (hypokalemia) and ionized calcium to bind to albumin (hypocalcemia). The client's perioral and digital tingling are early signs of neuromuscular irritability from low calcium. Therefore, assessing for progressive tetany (muscle spasms) and cardiac dysrhythmias (from low potassium and calcium) is the highest priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH of 7.54 indicates alkalemia. The normal PaCO2PaCO_2 (41 mm Hg) and elevated HCO3−HCO_3^- (34 mEq/L) indicate uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
Accurate ABG interpretation is essential to determine the underlying acid-base imbalance.
2
Connect the clinical scenario to the ABG findings.
Continuous gastric suctioning depletes the body of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and potassium, directly leading to metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the etiology confirms the diagnosis and helps anticipate related physiological changes.
3
Correlate the client's physical symptoms with the physiological imbalance.
Alkalosis causes an increase in calcium binding to albumin, leading to a decrease in ionized calcium. This functional hypocalcemia causes the perioral tingling and lightheadedness.
Identifying the cause of new symptoms guides the appropriate nursing intervention.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing action.
The nurse must prioritize assessing for the most severe complications of hypocalcemia and concurrent hypokalemia, which are tetany (muscle spasms) and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Patient safety principles dictate prioritizing assessments of potentially life-threatening physiological complications (ABCs and severe neuromuscular compromise).

Key Concept

Metabolic Alkalosis and Associated Electrolyte Imbalances
Question 449Question →

During the continuous monitoring of a client admitted with a severe asthma exacerbation, the nurse observes that the client's respiratory rate has abruptly declined from 36 to 10 breaths per minute. The previously auscultated loud wheezes are now markedly diminished, and the client is increasingly somnolent. Recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals the following results:

ParameterValue
pH7.24
PaCO2PaCO_272 mm Hg
PaO2PaO_256 mm Hg
HCO3−HCO_3^-24 mEq/L

What is the most critical action for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Activate the rapid response team and prepare for emergent endotracheal intubation

Answer

Activate the rapid response team and prepare for emergent endotracheal intubation
The correct action directly addresses the life-threatening emergency. The client is experiencing a 'silent chest' and severe uncompensated respiratory acidosis, indicating acute respiratory failure. Because the client is exhausted and losing consciousness (somnolent) due to high carbon dioxide levels, immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are required to save their life.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physical assessment findings.
The drop in respiratory rate (from 36 to 10), decreased wheezing ('silent chest'), and somnolence indicate that the client is exhausted and can no longer maintain the work of breathing.
Recognizing a 'silent chest' in asthma is critical because it indicates airflow is so restricted that wheezing can no longer be produced, signaling imminent respiratory arrest.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH of 7.24 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 of 72 mm Hg (hypercapnia), and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 24 mEq/L (normal) reveal uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
High PaCO2PaCO_2 confirms that the client is failing to ventilate and is retaining carbon dioxide, which directly correlates with the clinical finding of somnolence (CO2 narcosis).
3
Prioritize the required nursing interventions.
Advanced airway management via endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation is selected as the top priority.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), a failing airway and inability to breathe autonomously require immediate mechanical support to prevent cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

Recognition and immediate management of impending respiratory failure (status asthmaticus).
Question 450Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who has a right-sided chest tube for the treatment of a spontaneous pneumothorax. The client suddenly exhibits severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. The nurse observes that the trachea is deviated to the left and tidaling in the water-seal chamber has abruptly stopped. A stat arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a pH of 7.247.24, a PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 62 mm Hg62\text{ mm Hg}, and a PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 52 mm Hg52\text{ mm Hg}. Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the client's risk of physiological deterioration?

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Answer: Inspect the entire length of the chest drainage tubing for kinks or dependent loops.

Answer

Inspect the entire length of the chest drainage tubing for kinks or dependent loops.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a tension pneumothorax: tracheal deviation away from the affected side, severe hypoxemia, and uncompensated respiratory acidosis. The abrupt cessation of tidaling in the water-seal chamber strongly suggests a mechanical occlusion in the chest tube system. The nurse's immediate priority is to examine the tubing for kinks, dependent loops, or closed clamps. Relieving this mechanical obstruction will rapidly decompress the pleural space, reverse the mediastinal shift, and prevent cardiopulmonary collapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physical findings and diagnostic data.
The combination of tracheal deviation away from the affected side, absent tidaling, and severe respiratory acidosis indicates a tension pneumothorax.
Air is trapped in the pleural space because the chest tube is occluded, causing intrathoracic pressure to build and compress the mediastinum.
2
Identify the immediate priority to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary arrest.
The nurse must find and eliminate the cause of the obstruction in the chest drainage system.
Restoring the patency of the chest tube will allow the trapped air to escape, rapidly resolving the tension pneumothorax and improving the client's ability to ventilate.

Key Concept

Management of Chest Tube Complications and Tension Pneumothorax
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 451Question →

A nurse is preparing to care for a postoperative client who will receive intravenous morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to ensure the safe administration of this parenteral therapy? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Verifying the PCA prescription and pump settings independently with a second registered nurse.; Connecting the PCA tubing to a primary intravenous line with a continuous infusion of a compatible maintenance fluid.; Monitoring the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and sedation scale score at regular intervals.

Answer

The appropriate actions for safe PCA administration are verifying the pump settings with a second registered nurse, connecting the PCA tubing to a running primary intravenous fluid line, and regularly monitoring the client's respiratory and sedation status.
Safe administration of a PCA involves verifying the settings with a second registered nurse to prevent programming errors, attaching the line to a continuous compatible carrier fluid to ensure the medication reaches the client and keeps the vein open, and strictly monitoring respiratory and sedation status to detect early signs of opioid toxicity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the high-risk nature of intravenous opioid administration via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Recognize that strict safety protocols, including dual verification and continuous clinical monitoring, are mandatory.
Opioids cause central nervous system depression, and administration errors can lead to fatal respiratory arrest.
2
Evaluate each proposed nursing action against established parenteral medication safety standards.
Determine that independent verification, using a carrier fluid, and conducting regular respiratory and sedation assessments are correct safety measures.
These actions prevent programming errors, ensure reliable medication delivery into the vein, and allow for the early detection of adverse effects.
3
Identify the unsafe practices among the options to eliminate them.
Identify that allowing family members to press the button (PCA by proxy) and disabling pump alarms are dangerous and contraindicated.
PCA by proxy bypasses the built-in safety of the client self-regulating doses based on their sedation level, while disabling alarms removes critical alerts for intravenous line failure.

Key Concept

Safe Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) Administration
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 452Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe for a client with diabetes mellitus. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological order from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence for mixing insulins is: Roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing regular and NPH insulin, the sequence is specifically designed to prevent contaminating the regular (clear) insulin with the NPH (cloudy) insulin. The correct, safe process is to first gently roll the NPH vial to resuspend the particles, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular vial, draw up the regular insulin, and finally draw up the NPH insulin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Roll the vial of NPH insulin between the palms of the hands.
The insulin suspension is mixed without creating air bubbles.
NPH insulin is a suspension that separates upon standing. Rolling mixes it evenly, whereas shaking creates bubbles that can lead to an inaccurate dose.
2
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
Air pressure in the NPH vial is equalized.
Injecting air prevents negative pressure within the vial, facilitating easier medication withdrawal later. This is done first for the NPH vial, being careful not to let the needle touch the liquid to avoid contaminating the needle before it enters the regular insulin vial.
3
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the regular insulin vial.
Air pressure in the regular insulin vial is equalized.
Air is injected into the regular insulin vial next. The needle is left in the vial, and the vial is inverted to prepare for immediate withdrawal of the medication.
4
Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin from the vial.
The exact dose of regular insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Regular insulin (which is clear) must always be drawn up before NPH insulin (which is cloudy). This prevents accidental contamination of the rapid-acting regular insulin vial with the longer-acting NPH insulin.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin from the vial.
The exact dose of NPH insulin is added to the syringe, completing the mixed dose.
NPH insulin is drawn last. The nurse must carefully withdraw only the exact amount needed, as the syringe already contains the regular insulin and cannot be pushed back into the vial.

Key Concept

The principle of 'Clear before Cloudy' when mixing insulins to prevent cross-contamination of vials.
Question 453Question →

An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who presented with increased work of breathing. After receiving supplemental oxygen for two hours, the client is now profoundly somnolent and responds only to painful stimuli. The respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min8\text{ breaths/min} and shallow. Recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows:

* pH:7.18\text{pH}: 7.18
* PaCO2:84 mm Hg\text{PaCO}_2: 84\text{ mm Hg}
* HCO3−:32 mEq/L\text{HCO}_3^-: 32\text{ mEq/L}
* PaO2:70 mm Hg\text{PaO}_2: 70\text{ mm Hg}

Based on the client's current clinical presentation and laboratory results, which action should the nurse prioritize?

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Answer: Gather equipment to assist with immediate endotracheal intubation.

Answer

Gather equipment to assist with immediate endotracheal intubation.
The client is experiencing acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis, evidenced by a pH\text{pH} of 7.187.18 and a PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 84 mm Hg84\text{ mm Hg}. The profound somnolence and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min8\text{ breaths/min} indicate acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and an inability to maintain or protect the airway. Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are essential to restore adequate alveolar ventilation, correct the severe acidemia, and protect the airway from aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The low pH (7.18) and markedly high PaCO2 (84 mm Hg) indicate severe respiratory acidosis. The elevated HCO3- (32 mEq/L) suggests a chronic compensatory state, identifying this as acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis.
Identifying the primary acid-base disturbance is necessary to understand the underlying physiological derangement.
2
Evaluate the client's clinical presentation.
The profound somnolence, response only to painful stimuli, and bradypnea (8 breaths/min) signify acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and a complete loss of airway protection.
ABG values must be correlated with the clinical picture to determine the acuity of the situation and the appropriate intervention.
3
Determine the safest and most effective method to restore ventilation and protect the airway.
Endotracheal intubation is required. Noninvasive ventilation (BiPAP) is contraindicated in somnolent clients due to aspiration risk.
Airway protection is the absolute highest priority in an unresponsive or deeply somnolent client experiencing respiratory failure.

Key Concept

Management of acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and contraindications for noninvasive ventilation.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 454Question →

While performing a morning assessment on a client who underwent an open bowel resection 48 hours ago, the client experiences a sudden, forceful cough. The client states, "Something just gave way in my stomach." The nurse inspects the surgical site and observes that the wound edges have separated with intestinal loops visible outside the abdominal cavity. In what sequence should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct order of priority.)

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions for an abdominal evisceration is to first call for help, then position the client to reduce abdominal tension, next cover the exposed organs with moist sterile dressings, and finally assess vital signs to monitor for shock.
Wound evisceration is a surgical emergency requiring rapid, sequential intervention to protect the exposed organs and prevent physiological decompensation. The correct sequence prioritizes immediate support without leaving the client, reducing mechanical tension on the abdomen, protecting visceral tissue viability, and initiating systemic monitoring for shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Call for immediate assistance and direct staff to contact the surgeon.
The rapid response team or additional nurses are alerted to gather necessary sterile supplies and notify the healthcare provider.
The primary nurse must remain at the bedside to monitor and support the client during this acute emergency.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees slightly flexed.
The client's abdominal muscles are relaxed.
Reducing tension on the abdominal wall prevents further evisceration of the internal organs.
3
Cover the exposed bowel with sterile dressings soaked in sterile normal saline.
The protruding intestinal loops are protected from the external environment.
Exposed viscera can quickly dry out and become necrotic. Sterile, moist environments preserve tissue viability and prevent infection.
4
Assess the client's vital signs and monitor for indicators of hypovolemic shock.
Baseline hemodynamics are established.
The client is at high risk for shock due to fluid loss and severe physiological stress. Monitoring guides further resuscitation efforts while the operating room is prepared.

Key Concept

Management of Abdominal Evisceration
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 455Question →

A 65-year-old client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of furosemide for severe fluid volume overload. During the shift, the client becomes increasingly lethargic and reports profound muscle cramps. The nurse notes the client's blood pressure has dropped from 134/82 mmHg to 86/52 mmHg over the past two hours. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals the following values: pH 7.53, PaCO2 43 mmHg, and HCO3 36 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse prioritize to mitigate the risk of further physiological decline?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discontinue the continuous furosemide infusion and immediately notify the healthcare provider.

Answer

Discontinue the continuous furosemide infusion and immediately notify the healthcare provider.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of severe volume depletion and contraction alkalosis induced by aggressive diuresis. The marked hypotension, lethargy, and muscle cramps (suggesting hypokalemia) are critical indicators of impending hypovolemic shock. The ABG results confirm uncompensated metabolic alkalosis. The nurse's immediate priority must be to halt the diuretic infusion and alert the provider to obtain orders for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's hemodynamic and neurological status.
The blood pressure has dropped precipitously to 86/52 mmHg, and the client is exhibiting lethargy and muscle cramps.
To recognize early indicators of inadequate tissue perfusion and hypokalemia resulting from excessive fluid loss.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.53 (alkaline), normal PaCO2 (43 mmHg), and elevated HCO3 (36 mEq/L) indicate uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
To correctly identify the acid-base imbalance as contraction alkalosis directly related to volume depletion, rather than a respiratory issue.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse.
Stop the continuous furosemide infusion.
Removing the cause of the rapid fluid and electrolyte loss is the most critical immediate action to stabilize the client.

Key Concept

Recognizing and mitigating impending hypovolemic shock and metabolic alkalosis caused by aggressive diuretic therapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 456Question →

A clinical unit is monitoring a client admitted for acute pyelonephritis. During the afternoon assessment, the client becomes increasingly restless and confused. The nurse reviews the most recent diagnostic and assessment data:

Assessment ParameterCurrent Value
Heart Rate122 beats/min122\text{ beats/min}
Blood Pressure88/54 mm Hg88/54\text{ mm Hg}
Temperature38.9∘C38.9^\circ\text{C} (102∘F102^\circ\text{F})
Arterial Blood pH7.307.30
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_231 mm Hg31\text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-15 mEq/L15\text{ mEq/L}

Based on these clinical findings, which of the following interventions should be implemented? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.; Obtain blood culture samples from two different peripheral sites.

Answer

The nurse should initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride and obtain blood culture samples from two different peripheral sites.
The client is demonstrating signs of early septic shock characterized by hypotension, tachycardia, fever, and metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis due to hypoperfusion). The immediate nursing priorities are to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion using an isotonic crystalloid solution, and to promptly obtain blood cultures so that empirical broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy can be initiated without delay.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client exhibits tachycardia, hypotension, fever, and altered mental status (restlessness/confusion).
These are classic early systemic indicators of sepsis progressing to septic shock, signaling a massive systemic inflammatory response and loss of intravascular volume.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG reveals uncompensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (lowered PaCO2).
In the context of infection and shock, this indicates lactic acidosis resulting from anaerobic metabolism due to severe tissue hypoperfusion.
3
Determine the highest priority physiological interventions.
The priority is to restore circulating volume with isotonic fluids and identify the pathogen.
Rapid fluid resuscitation corrects the hypoperfusion driving the lactic acidosis, and obtaining cultures immediately prepares the client for life-saving broad-spectrum antibiotics.

Key Concept

Early recognition and prioritization of interventions in septic shock, emphasizing rapid fluid resuscitation and obtaining cultures prior to antibiotic therapy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 457Question →

A pediatric client weighing 33 lb is prescribed ampicillin 100 mg/kg/day intravenously, divided into equal doses administered every 6 hours. The pharmacy dispenses ampicillin with a concentration of 250 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse administer per dose? Record your answer to the nearest tenth.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1.5

Answer

1.5
To find the correct volume per dose, first convert the weight to kilograms (33 lb / 2.2 = 15 kg). Next, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed dose (15 kg * 100 mg/kg = 1,500 mg/day). Since the medication is given every 6 hours, divide the total daily dose by 4 (24 hours / 6 hours = 4 doses), which equals 375 mg per dose. Finally, calculate the volume using the available concentration: 375 mg / 250 mg/mL = 1.5 mL.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
33 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 15 kg
The medication dosage is prescribed based on weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total daily dose of ampicillin in milligrams.
15 kg * 100 mg/kg/day = 1,500 mg/day
This determines the total amount of medication required for a full 24-hour period.
3
Determine the amount of medication required for a single dose.
24 hours / 6 hours = 4 doses per day; 1,500 mg / 4 doses = 375 mg/dose
The total daily dose must be divided equally across the prescribed frequency.
4
Calculate the volume of the medication to administer based on the available concentration.
375 mg / 250 mg/mL = 1.5 mL
This converts the required dose in milligrams to the physical volume in milliliters for administration.

Key Concept

Weight-based pediatric intravenous medication calculation requires converting weight to kilograms, calculating the total daily dosage, dividing by the administration frequency, and applying the available drug concentration.
Question 458Question →

Two hours after a diagnostic colonoscopy with multiple polypectomies, a client begins to complain of severe, continuous abdominal pain that radiates to the right shoulder. The nurse observes that the client's abdomen is rigid and board-like upon inspection. Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg and a heart rate of 122 beats per minute. Which intervention is the most critical to implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain strict nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status, ensure patent intravenous access, and urgently notify the healthcare provider.

Answer

The most critical intervention is to maintain a strict NPO status, establish patent intravenous access, and immediately notify the healthcare provider.
The clinical presentation of a rigid, board-like abdomen, severe pain radiating to the right shoulder (referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation), and signs of shock (hypotension, tachycardia) strongly indicate a bowel perforation. This is a severe, life-threatening complication of a colonoscopy and polypectomy. The priority action is to prepare the client for emergent surgery by maintaining an NPO status, establishing robust intravenous access for fluid resuscitation, and immediately alerting the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's post-procedure clinical presentation.
The client has severe pain radiating to the shoulder, a rigid/board-like abdomen, hypotension (88/54 mm Hg), and tachycardia (122 bpm).
Identifying abnormal assessment data is necessary to determine if the client is experiencing an expected side effect or a severe complication.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with potential colonoscopy complications.
These findings are classic indicators of a bowel perforation causing peritonitis, referred diaphragmatic pain, and impending hemorrhagic or septic shock.
Connecting the symptoms to a specific physiological compromise guides the prioritization of nursing interventions.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention to reduce risk and stabilize the client.
The client requires emergency surgery and fluid resuscitation; therefore, keeping the client NPO, securing IV access, and alerting the provider is the immediate priority.
Preparing the client for emergency surgical repair addresses the root cause of the life-threatening deterioration.

Key Concept

Bowel Perforation and Post-Procedure Complication Management
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 459Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury who suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and blurred vision. The client's blood pressure is 215/115 mm Hg, heart rate is 52 bpm, and they have profound diaphoresis above the level of the injury. In what order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange the actions from highest priority (first) to lowest priority (last).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: Place the client in a high Fowler's position, loosen any constrictive clothing, assess the bladder for distention, and finally administer the prescribed short-acting antihypertensive medication.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a neurologic emergency that occurs in clients with a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level. It is caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, leading to an uninhibited sympathetic response. The priority is to decrease the blood pressure immediately to prevent a stroke by elevating the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position. The next step is to remove any rapid external stimuli by loosening constrictive clothing. Then, the nurse must systematically assess for internal triggers, with bladder distention being the most common. Finally, if conservative measures and removal of the stimulus fail to reduce the blood pressure, the nurse should administer a prescribed short-acting antihypertensive medication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical emergency
The client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by severe hypertension, bradycardia, and diaphoresis above a T4 spinal cord injury.
Recognizing autonomic dysreflexia is critical because it is a life-threatening medical emergency requiring immediate, specific sequential interventions to prevent a stroke.
2
Determine the most immediate action to mitigate risk
The immediate priority is to place the client in a high Fowler's position.
This intervention rapidly utilizes orthostatic pressure changes to lower the blood pressure in the cerebral vessels, providing immediate protection while other causes are investigated.
3
Address external contributing factors
Loosening constrictive clothing or tight devices is the next step.
Any noxious stimulus below the level of injury can trigger or worsen the sympathetic response. Removing external restrictions is a rapid intervention that can be performed immediately.
4
Assess for and resolve internal triggering stimuli
Assess the bladder for distention and check the urinary catheter.
Bladder distention (e.g., from a kinked catheter or urinary retention) is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia. Resolving the trigger will halt the pathological reflex.
5
Identify indicated pharmacological interventions
Administer the prescribed short-acting antihypertensive medication as the final step in this sequence.
Medications are used if the cause cannot be rapidly found and removed, or if the blood pressure remains dangerously elevated despite nursing interventions.

Key Concept

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6, requiring immediate positioning to lower blood pressure, followed by identification and removal of triggering stimuli.
Question 460Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine for the treatment of septic shock. The nurse observes that the tissue surrounding the peripheral IV insertion site is pale, swollen, and cool to the touch. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the infusion immediately and leave the intravenous catheter in place.

Answer

Stop the infusion immediately and leave the intravenous catheter in place.
The client is experiencing extravasation of norepinephrine, a potent vesicant that causes severe tissue ischemia and necrosis. The absolute priority action is to immediately stop the infusion to prevent further tissue damage. Crucially, the catheter must be left in place initially so that the nurse can attempt to aspirate the residual medication from the tubing and administer the prescribed antidote (such as phentolamine) directly into the affected tissue via the existing line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the complication occurring at the IV site.
The pallor, swelling, and coolness indicate extravasation of a vesicant (norepinephrine).
Vesicants cause severe tissue necrosis if they leak into surrounding subcutaneous tissues.
2
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The immediate priority is to halt the administration of the offending agent.
Stopping the infusion prevents further accumulation of the toxic medication in the tissue.
3
Establish the correct procedure for managing vesicant extravasation.
The catheter must remain in place initially rather than being immediately removed.
Keeping the catheter intact allows the nurse to aspirate residual medication and administer a specific antidote (such as phentolamine) directly to the affected area.

Key Concept

Management of Vesicant Extravasation
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