Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 781Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin for four days to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The client's most recent laboratory results reveal a platelet count that has decreased from an admission baseline of 240,000/mm3240,000/\text{mm}^3 to 95,000/mm395,000/\text{mm}^3. The nurse suspects the client is developing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Based on this clinical presentation, which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Stop the continuous intravenous heparin infusion immediately.; Assess the client closely for signs of neurovascular compromise or new venous thrombosis.; Prepare to initiate an infusion of a direct thrombin inhibitor such as argatroban.

Answer

The correct actions are to stop the continuous intravenous heparin infusion immediately, assess the client closely for signs of neurovascular compromise or new venous thrombosis, and prepare to initiate an infusion of a direct thrombin inhibitor such as argatroban.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a severe, immune-mediated complication characterized by a sudden, unexplained drop in platelet count (typically greater than 50% from baseline) and a paradoxical increase in the risk for arterial and venous thrombosis. The immediate priority is to stop all sources of heparin exposure. Because the client remains at a high risk for thrombosis, an alternative non-heparin anticoagulant, such as a direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban or bivalirudin), must be initiated. Additionally, due to the prothrombotic state, the nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of new blood clots, such as neurovascular changes or changes in extremity perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and laboratory trends.
The platelet count has dropped by more than 50% from the baseline of 240,000/mm3240,000/\text{mm}^3 to 95,000/mm395,000/\text{mm}^3 over four days of continuous heparin therapy.
A significant and sudden drop in platelets during heparin therapy is a hallmark indicator of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
2
Determine the priority pharmacological intervention for suspected HIT.
The immediate action is to discontinue the unfractionated heparin infusion and avoid all other heparin products.
Continued exposure to any form of heparin will worsen the immune-mediated destruction of platelets and increase the risk of thrombosis.
3
Identify appropriate ongoing management and monitoring strategies.
Prepare to administer a non-heparin direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban) and assess for new thrombotic events.
Despite the low platelet count, HIT causes a highly prothrombotic state. The client requires alternative anticoagulation and vigilant monitoring for new clots.

Key Concept

Recognition and acute pharmacological management of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
Question 782Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following an abdominal surgery and is receiving intravenous morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate for the safe administration and monitoring of this therapy? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Require an independent double-check of the pump settings with a second registered nurse during shift handoff.; Monitor the client's sedation level and respiratory rate at frequent, regular intervals per facility protocol.; Ensure that an opioid antagonist and emergency airway equipment are immediately accessible on the unit.

Answer

The appropriate actions for a client receiving intravenous PCA therapy include requiring an independent double-check of pump settings with a second registered nurse, monitoring the sedation and respiratory status frequently, and ensuring emergency airway equipment and an opioid antagonist are accessible.
Safe PCA administration requires strict adherence to medication safety protocols, including independent double-checks by two nurses to prevent programming errors. Additionally, because opioid analgesics suppress the central nervous system, vigilant monitoring of the client's respiratory rate and sedation level is essential. Finally, emergency preparedness is mandatory; an opioid antagonist (naloxone) and airway equipment must be immediately accessible to reverse severe respiratory depression if it occurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current situation.
The client is postoperative and receiving continuous and demand-dose intravenous opioids via a PCA pump.
Understanding the clinical context is required to identify the specific risks associated with the therapy.
2
Identify the primary risks associated with opioid PCA therapy.
The primary risks include respiratory depression, over-sedation, medication administration errors, and potential IV incompatibilities.
Recognizing potential complications guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
3
Evaluate each action based on safe medication administration principles and scope of practice.
Actions involving proper monitoring, verification, and emergency preparedness are correct. Actions involving improper delegation, bypassing compatibility checks, and unsafe positioning are incorrect.
Nursing care must align with safety protocols, evidence-based practices, and legal delegation boundaries.

Key Concept

Safe administration and monitoring of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
Question 783Question →

A nurse is performing a postoperative assessment on a client who is utilizing a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine following a right total knee arthroplasty. The client is lethargic, difficult to arouse, and has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute with shallow chest excursion. Based on these assessment findings, which arterial blood gas (ABG) result should the nurse anticipate?

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Answer: pH 7.26, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L

Answer

The ABG result showing pH 7.26, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L correctly represents acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
The correct ABG values reflect acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can cause hypoventilation. When a client breathes too slowly and shallowly, they retain carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg). This excess CO2 lowers the blood pH (< 7.35). Because this is an acute event, the kidneys have not yet compensated by retaining bicarbonate, so the HCO3- remains normal (22-26 mEq/L).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological derangement based on the clinical assessment.
The client has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute and shallow breathing due to opioid (morphine) administration, indicating severe hypoventilation.
Recognizing the clinical state is required to predict the corresponding acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the effect of hypoventilation on arterial blood gases.
Hypoventilation leads to the retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg), which forms carbonic acid in the blood, resulting in a decreased pH (< 7.35).
Carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the body; its accumulation directly causes respiratory acidosis.
3
Evaluate the chronicity of the event to determine compensation.
Because this is an acute postoperative event, the kidneys have not had sufficient time (which typically takes 2-3 days) to retain bicarbonate (HCO3-). Therefore, the HCO3- level will remain within the normal range (22-26 mEq/L).
Differentiating acute from chronic acid-base imbalances relies on the presence or absence of metabolic compensation.

Key Concept

Opioid-induced respiratory depression causes hypoventilation, leading to carbon dioxide retention and acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Question 784Question →

A nurse is preparing to draw up a prescribed intravenous medication from a glass ampule. Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order to ensure safe preparation.

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Answer

The correct chronological order for preparing medication from an ampule is: tap the ampule to clear the fluid from the neck, wrap the neck with a protective pad, snap the neck away from the body, withdraw the medication using a filter needle, and finally replace the filter needle with a standard injection needle.
Safe preparation of medication from a glass ampule follows a strict chronological sequence to prevent injury to the nurse and client. Tapping the ampule ensures the entire dose is in the lower chamber. Wrapping the neck provides a physical barrier, and snapping away from the body protects against flying glass. Using a filter needle is mandatory to prevent glass aspiration, and replacing it before administration ensures glass particles are not injected into the client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Tap the top of the ampule lightly.
The medication in the top of the ampule moves into the bottom chamber.
This ensures the full dose of the medication is available and prevents spilling when the ampule is opened.
2
Wrap a sterile gauze pad or unopened alcohol swab around the ampule neck.
A physical barrier is created around the scored glass.
This protects the nurse's fingers from cuts when the glass breaks.
3
Snap the ampule neck quickly and firmly away from the body.
The ampule is opened safely.
Directing the breaking force away from the body prevents glass shards from flying toward the nurse's face or eyes.
4
Attach a filter needle to a syringe and withdraw the medication.
The medication is drawn into the syringe without glass shards.
The filter needle catches any microscopic glass particles that may have fallen into the liquid when the ampule was snapped.
5
Remove the filter needle and attach an appropriate injection needle.
The syringe is safely prepared for administration to the client.
Filter needles are for drawing up only; using them for administration could inject trapped glass particles into the client.

Key Concept

Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule requires protecting the nurse from glass cuts and protecting the client from glass shards by using a filter needle.
Question 785Question →

During a morning assessment, a nurse evaluates a client who has been suffering from frequent, severe vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is the client at greatest risk for developing as a direct result of this fluid loss?

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Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis
The correct answer identifies that frequent, severe vomiting depletes the body of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid). The loss of these hydrogen ions leaves a relative excess of bicarbonate in the bloodstream, which raises the systemic pH and causes metabolic alkalosis. Because the imbalance originates from the gastrointestinal tract rather than the lungs, it is classified as a metabolic condition.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mechanism of fluid and electrolyte loss described in the scenario.
The client is experiencing frequent, severe vomiting.
Understanding the source of fluid loss is required to determine which specific electrolytes and acids are being depleted.
2
Determine the chemical composition of the lost fluid.
Gastric fluid contains a high concentration of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
Knowing that stomach contents are acidic explains the physiological impact of losing large volumes of this fluid.
3
Analyze the systemic effect of losing a significant amount of acid.
Losing hydrogen ions (H+) from the gastrointestinal tract leaves a relative excess of base (bicarbonate) in the blood, causing the systemic pH to rise (alkalosis).
This establishes the condition as alkalosis. Because it originates from a gastrointestinal issue rather than a respiratory one, it is classified as a metabolic imbalance.

Key Concept

Pathophysiology of acid-base imbalances due to gastric acid depletion
Question 786Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a hypertensive crisis. The provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 3 mcg/kg/min3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose5\% \text{ Dextrose} in water (D5WD_5W). At what rate should the nurse set the IV infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.)

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Answer: 72

Answer

The correct infusion rate is 72 mL/hr.
To solve this calculation correctly, multiple conversions are required. First, the client's weight of 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs} is converted to 80 kg80 \text{ kg}. The total per-minute dose is 80 kg×3 mcg/kg/min=240 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 240 \text{ mcg/min}. This equals 14,400 mcg/hr14,400 \text{ mcg/hr} (240×60240 \times 60). Converting to milligrams gives 14.4 mg/hr14.4 \text{ mg/hr} (14,400÷1,00014,400 \div 1,000). The concentration of the supplied bag is 50 mg/250 mL=0.2 mg/mL50 \text{ mg} / 250 \text{ mL} = 0.2 \text{ mg/mL}. Dividing the hourly dose by the concentration (14.4÷0.214.4 \div 0.2) yields exactly 72 mL/hr72 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert weight to kilograms
176 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 80 \text{ kg}
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg.
2
Calculate dose per minute
80 kg×3 mcg/kg/min=240 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 240 \text{ mcg/min}
To determine the total micrograms the client receives each minute.
3
Calculate dose per hour
240 mcg/min×60 min/hr=14,400 mcg/hr240 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 14,400 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are set in mL/hr, requiring an hourly dose.
4
Convert dose to milligrams
14,400 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=14.4 mg/hr14,400 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 14.4 \text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication is measured in milligrams, so the units must match.
5
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr
14.4 mg/hr÷(50 mg/250 mL)=14.4 mg/hr÷0.2 mg/mL=72 mL/hr14.4 \text{ mg/hr} \div (50 \text{ mg} / 250 \text{ mL}) = 14.4 \text{ mg/hr} \div 0.2 \text{ mg/mL} = 72 \text{ mL/hr}
To find the final volume to be infused per hour based on the drug's concentration.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous (IV) infusion calculations requiring multi-step unit conversions.
Question 787Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock who weighs 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed dopamine solution of 400 mg400 \text{ mg} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water5\% \text{ dextrose in water} (D5W). What rate should the nurse program the IV infusion pump to deliver the prescribed dose? Record your answer as a whole number.

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Answer: 15

Answer

15 mL/hr
The precise infusion rate required is 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. This setting accurately delivers 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} of dopamine to an 80 kg80 \text{ kg} client, given the supplied medication concentration of 1.6 mg/mL1.6 \text{ mg/mL} (400 mg400 \text{ mg} in 250 mL250 \text{ mL}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on kilograms of body weight.
2
Calculate the required continuous dose of dopamine per minute.
80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
To determine the exact amount of medication the specific client needs every minute.
3
Convert the calculated per-minute dose to a per-hour dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Standard IV infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the dose must be matched to an hourly timeframe.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=24 mg/hr24,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 24 \text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed IV bag concentration is provided in milligrams (400 mg400 \text{ mg}); matching units are required before the volume calculation.
5
Calculate the required fluid volume to deliver the hourly dose.
24 mg400 mg×250 mL=15 mL/hr\frac{24 \text{ mg}}{400 \text{ mg}} \times 250 \text{ mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This uses the formula: (Desired Dose / Amount on Hand) × Volume to find the final pump rate.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous medication calculations.
Question 788Question →

A registered nurse is preparing to safely move a client who has right-sided hemiparesis from the hospital bed into a wheelchair. In what sequence should the nurse perform the following interventions?

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes environmental safety by placing the chair on the strong side, prevents orthostatic hypotension by dangling, secures the client with a gait belt and footwear, stabilizes the weak leg during standing, and executes the pivot toward the strong side.
The correct sequence ensures client safety by addressing environmental, physiological, and mechanical risks in a logical order. The nurse must first prepare the environment by placing the chair on the strong side. Next, the nurse addresses physiological safety by allowing the client to dangle to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Mechanical safety is then established by applying a gait belt and non-skid footwear. Finally, the nurse provides physical support by bracing the weak side during the stand and directing the pivot toward the strong side.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the wheelchair on the client's strong (left) side and lock the wheels.
The environment is secured for a safe transfer path.
Transferring toward the unaffected side ensures the client can use their strong leg to pivot and bear weight safely.
2
Sit the client on the edge of the bed and allow their legs to dangle.
The client is acclimated to an upright posture.
This allows baroreceptors to adjust, preventing orthostatic hypotension and dizziness before standing.
3
Apply the transfer belt and put on non-skid footwear.
The client is properly equipped for physical movement.
The belt provides the nurse with a secure grip to prevent falls, and the footwear provides traction.
4
Brace the client's weak (right) leg while holding the transfer belt.
The client's hemiparetic side is fully supported.
This prevents the weakened knee from buckling under the client's weight during the standing phase.
5
Pivot the client to the left and lower them into the chair.
The client is safely transferred into the wheelchair.
Using the strong arm and leg allows the client to control their descent and maintain balance during the final step.

Key Concept

Safe client transfer techniques for hemiparesis
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 789Question →

A client is recovering on the surgical unit 24 hours after a right-sided modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. The client reports mild incisional pain and a feeling of "heaviness" in the right arm. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to promote comfort and minimize postoperative complications?

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Answer: Elevate the right arm on several pillows to ensure it rests above the level of the right atrium.

Answer

The most appropriate intervention is to elevate the right arm on several pillows to ensure it rests above the level of the right atrium.
Following a mastectomy that involves the removal of axillary lymph nodes, the natural drainage of lymphatic fluid from the arm is compromised. Elevating the affected arm on pillows so that it is positioned above the level of the heart utilizes gravity to assist in venous and lymphatic return. This simple positional intervention effectively reduces peripheral edema, alleviates the subjective feeling of heaviness, and promotes physical comfort without compromising the surgical site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's postoperative status and reported symptoms.
The client underwent a right mastectomy with axillary node removal and is currently experiencing right arm heaviness.
Identifying the specific surgical procedure and recognizing related physiological symptoms dictates the appropriate comfort and risk-reduction interventions.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of axillary lymph node dissection.
Removal of axillary nodes impairs the normal lymphatic drainage pathways from the right arm, leading to fluid accumulation and a feeling of heaviness.
Understanding the mechanism of postoperative lymphedema is essential for selecting a mechanical intervention to counteract fluid pooling.
3
Select the intervention that best promotes lymphatic return and overall comfort.
Elevating the affected arm above the level of the heart using pillows is chosen as the primary non-pharmacologic intervention.
Elevation utilizes gravity to facilitate venous and lymphatic return back into central circulation, effectively reducing the feeling of heaviness and preventing severe postoperative swelling.

Key Concept

Postoperative Mastectomy Positioning and Lymphedema Prevention
Question 790Question →

Following a major abdominal surgery, a client is being monitored closely for potential hemorrhagic complications. Which of the following vital sign trends should the nurse identify as the most reliable early indicator of developing hypovolemic shock?

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Answer: Narrowing of the pulse pressure

Answer

Narrowing of the pulse pressure
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the sympathetic nervous system stimulates peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain core perfusion. This clamping down of the blood vessels raises the diastolic blood pressure. Because the systolic blood pressure initially remains normal or drops only slightly, the difference between the two values decreases, resulting in a narrowing of the pulse pressure. This is a critical early warning sign that occurs before frank hypotension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the type of shock the client is at risk for.
The client is at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential hemorrhage from the abdominal surgery.
Understanding the etiology helps anticipate the specific physiological compensatory mechanisms.
2
Determine the early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemia.
The sympathetic nervous system releases catecholamines, causing peripheral vasoconstriction and mild tachycardia.
The body attempts to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs.
3
Analyze how vasoconstriction affects blood pressure readings.
Vasoconstriction primarily raises the diastolic blood pressure, while the systolic blood pressure initially remains stable or drops slightly, causing the gap between them to narrow.
This makes a narrowing pulse pressure one of the most reliable and earliest indicators of shock, before frank hypotension develops.

Key Concept

Early indicators of hypovolemic shock include a narrowing pulse pressure and mild tachycardia, which occur as compensatory mechanisms before a drop in systolic blood pressure.
Question 791Question →

A nurse is preparing to remove a non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) from the subclavian vein of an alert, cooperative adult client. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological order to minimize the risk of a venous air embolism and bleeding. (First action to last action)

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Answer

The correct sequence for removing a central venous catheter is to first position the client supine, instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter during the maneuver, apply immediate firm pressure, and finally apply an air-occlusive dressing.
Removing a central venous catheter (CVC) carries a high risk of venous air embolism and bleeding. To minimize these risks, the nurse must manipulate pressure gradients to ensure venous pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure. Positioning the client supine increases central venous pressure. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver (bearing down) further raises intrathoracic pressure. Withdrawing the catheter during this positive-pressure state prevents air from entering the vein. Immediately applying firm pressure stops bleeding and seals the tract, and finally, placing an air-occlusive dressing ensures the site remains sealed while the skin and vein heal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client flat in a supine position.
Central venous pressure increases in the upper body.
Keeping the insertion site at or below the level of the heart prevents a negative pressure gradient that could draw air into the vein.
2
Instruct the client to take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down.
Intrathoracic pressure is temporarily increased.
This Valsalva maneuver creates positive pressure within the venous system, actively pushing against atmospheric pressure.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously.
The catheter is removed from the vein.
Removing the catheter while the client holds their breath ensures air cannot enter the open venous tract.
4
Apply firm manual pressure to the insertion site with sterile gauze.
Bleeding is controlled and the tract is sealed.
Firm pressure for at least 5 to 10 minutes achieves hemostasis and physically prevents air entry.
5
Secure an air-occlusive dressing over the site.
The insertion site is completely sealed from the environment.
An occlusive dressing prevents delayed air entry while the tissue tract heals.

Key Concept

Prevention of Venous Air Embolism During CVC Removal
Question 792Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of iron dextran using the Z-track method to an adult client. Arrange the following steps of the procedure in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first cleanse the site, displace the skin laterally, insert the needle at a 90-degree angle, inject the medication slowly, wait 10 seconds, and finally withdraw the needle while releasing the displaced skin.
The Z-track method is designed to prevent irritating medications, such as iron dextran, from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Proper technique requires establishing the track by displacing the skin first, then inserting the needle and injecting. Waiting 10 seconds allows for dispersion within the muscle, and releasing the skin only after the needle is completely withdrawn seals the track.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify and cleanse the injection site.
The skin over the target muscle is disinfected.
This is the foundational step of infection control prior to breaking the skin barrier.
2
Displace the skin and subcutaneous tissue laterally.
The tissue layers are shifted out of their normal alignment.
This sets up the Z-track path, which is required before the needle is introduced.
3
Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
The needle penetrates through the displaced skin and subcutaneous tissue into the muscle.
A 90-degree angle ensures the medication is delivered deep into the muscle, not the subcutaneous layer.
4
Inject the medication slowly.
The medication is deposited into the muscle tissue.
Slow injection minimizes tissue distention and discomfort.
5
Wait for 10 seconds with the needle in place.
The medication begins to absorb and disperse.
Waiting prevents the medication from immediately seeking the path of least resistance (the needle track) when the needle is removed.
6
Withdraw the needle and release the skin.
The tissue layers slide back to their normal anatomical position.
This traps the medication in the muscle, preventing it from leaking into subcutaneous tissue and causing irritation.

Key Concept

Z-track Method for Intramuscular Injections
Question 793Question →

An older adult client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with generalized weakness, poor oral intake, and frequent episodes of fecal incontinence. The client occasionally exhibits periods of confusion and is currently bed-bound. Which interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote comfort and prevent skin breakdown? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Place a pillow under the client's calves to suspend the heels entirely off the mattress.; Reposition the client at least every two hours utilizing a 30-degree lateral inclined position.; Gently cleanse the perineal area and apply a moisture barrier cream after each episode of incontinence.

Answer

The correct interventions are placing a pillow under the calves to suspend the heels, repositioning every two hours using a 30-degree lateral position, and applying a moisture barrier cream after incontinence.
Proper basic care and comfort for an immobile, incontinent client focuses on relieving pressure and protecting the skin barrier. Suspending the heels completely off the mattress eliminates pressure on the vulnerable heel area. Repositioning every two hours using a 30-degree lateral position avoids placing direct pressure on the trochanter (hip bone) while effectively relieving sacral pressure. Applying a moisture barrier cream after gently cleaning the area protects the epidermis from the corrosive effects of stool and urine, preventing moisture-associated skin damage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk factors for impaired skin integrity.
The client has multiple risk factors: immobility, fecal incontinence, poor nutrition, and older adult status.
Identifying specific clinical risk factors guides the selection of targeted basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate each potential intervention for safety and adherence to evidence-based skin protection guidelines.
Heel suspension, 30-degree lateral turns, and moisture barriers are proven, safe preventive measures.
Using standard care protocols prevents friction, shear, and moisture-associated skin damage.
3
Identify contraindicated actions or improper nursing delegations among the choices.
Continuous high Fowler's positioning increases shear, UAPs cannot perform comprehensive assessments, and restraints require prior alternative measures.
Avoiding contraindicated actions protects the client from harm and aligns with the nursing scope of practice and legal mandates.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort for Skin Integrity
Question 794Question →

A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of alteplase (rtPA) for an acute ischemic stroke. Thirty minutes into the infusion, the client reports a sudden, severe headache, becomes intensely nauseous, and exhibits a new unilateral pupillary dilation. To reduce the risk of catastrophic neurological deterioration, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the alteplase infusion, then assess the airway and hemodynamics, notify the healthcare team, send the client for an emergent CT scan, and finally draw blood for coagulation studies.
The physiological integrity of the client is best preserved by immediately eliminating the source of harm (stopping alteplase). Once the immediate risk is mitigated, the nurse secures the airway and stabilizes hemodynamics. Following stabilization, communicating with the medical team allows for orders that direct diagnostic confirmation (CT scan) and subsequent supportive care preparation (drawing blood for coagulation factors).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Discontinue the intravenous alteplase infusion immediately.
The delivery of the fibrinolytic agent is halted.
Symptoms such as sudden severe headache, nausea, and pupillary changes during alteplase administration strongly indicate hemorrhagic conversion. Stopping the drug minimizes further coagulopathy and limits expanding intracranial hemorrhage.
2
Assess airway patency, breathing, and hemodynamic stability.
Immediate life threats regarding oxygenation, ventilation, and perfusion are identified.
An expanding intracranial hemorrhage can cause rapid depression of the central nervous system, leading to loss of airway reflexes. This assessment determines if immediate intubation or cardiovascular support is required.
3
Notify the rapid response team and the neurologist.
Advanced medical support and targeted interventions are mobilized.
The provider must evaluate the client and order emergency diagnostics and pharmacological reversal agents.
4
Transport the client for an emergent non-contrast head CT scan.
The presence of intracranial bleeding is confirmed or ruled out.
A non-contrast CT is the gold standard for rapidly identifying acute hemorrhage, which dictates the subsequent medical or surgical management.
5
Draw blood for a stat coagulation profile and type and screen.
Laboratory data is obtained to guide blood product administration.
Preparing for the administration of cryoprecipitate, platelets, or antifibrinolytic agents requires baseline coagulation values and blood typing.

Key Concept

Prioritization of interventions for life-threatening complications of fibrinolytic therapy requires immediately removing the causative agent before assessing ABCs and escalating care.
Question 795Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department experiencing a severe panic attack. The client is visibly anxious, diaphoretic, and breathing rapidly at a rate of 34 breaths per minute. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values would the nurse anticipate for this client? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: pH 7.52; PaCO2 28 mm Hg

Answer

The expected ABG values for a hyperventilating client are a pH greater than 7.45 (such as 7.52) and a PaCO2 less than 35 mm Hg (such as 28 mm Hg).
Acute hyperventilation from a panic attack causes the body to exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide. Because carbon dioxide functions as an acid in the blood, this rapid loss leads to a decrease in PaCO2 (below the normal baseline of 35 mm Hg) and a corresponding increase in blood pH (above the normal baseline of 7.45). This physiological state is known as respiratory alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical manifestation in the scenario.
The client is hyperventilating (breathing rapidly and deeply) due to a panic attack.
Recognizing the breathing pattern is essential to determine how carbon dioxide is being handled by the respiratory system.
2
Determine the physiological effect of hyperventilation on gas exchange.
Rapid breathing leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the lungs.
CO2 acts as an acid in the blood; blowing it off reduces the total acid concentration in the body.
3
Correlate the physiological change to ABG values.
The loss of CO2 causes PaCO2 to decrease below 35 mm Hg, which subsequently increases the blood pH above 7.45.
This specific combination of a high pH and a low PaCO2 defines acute respiratory alkalosis.

Key Concept

Respiratory Alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation
Question 796Question →

The nurse receives a client who has just returned to the nursing unit following a diagnostic cardiac catheterization performed via the right femoral artery. Which of the following positioning interventions is most important for the nurse to implement to reduce the risk of postoperative bleeding?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the right leg in an extended, straight position.

Answer

Maintain the right leg in an extended, straight position.
Maintaining the affected extremity in an extended, straight position is essential following a femoral artery puncture. This position keeps the femoral artery undisturbed, allowing a stable clot to form and significantly reducing the risk of hematoma development or active arterial hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure and the specific vascular access site used.
The client underwent a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
The anatomical location of the puncture site dictates the specific postoperative positioning restrictions.
2
Determine the primary physiological risk associated with this procedure.
The primary immediate risk is arterial hemorrhage or hematoma formation at the femoral puncture site.
The femoral artery is a large, high-pressure blood vessel that requires prolonged, undisturbed compression and healing time to maintain hemostasis.
3
Select the positioning intervention that minimizes mechanical stress on the site.
Keeping the right leg extended and unbent prevents hip flexion.
Hip flexion disrupts the puncture site, increases local pressure, and can dislodge the protective clot, leading to severe bleeding.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Positioning to Reduce Bleeding Risk
Question 797Question →

A nurse is preparing to assist a client who has dysphagia and right-sided facial weakness with a meal. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to ensure safe oral intake and prevent aspiration. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

First, elevate the head of the bed. Second, place food on the left side. Third, instruct the client to tuck their chin. Fourth, assess for pocketed food. Finally, maintain an upright position.
Safe oral feeding for a client with dysphagia and hemiparesis requires a systematic approach prioritizing airway protection. Upright positioning must occur before any food is introduced. Food is then placed on the unaffected side to maximize control, followed by a chin-tuck maneuver to physically protect the airway during the swallow. Immediate post-swallow assessment ensures clearance, and prolonged upright positioning prevents subsequent reflux or delayed aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish safe positioning.
The head of the bed is elevated to 90 degrees.
Gravity assists swallowing and severely reduces the initial risk of aspiration.
2
Introduce food appropriately.
Food is placed on the strong (left) side of the mouth.
The unaffected side has intact motor control and sensation, allowing the client to safely manipulate the bolus.
3
Protect the airway during the swallow.
The client performs a chin-tuck maneuver.
This physical positioning narrows the airway opening and prevents food from entering the trachea.
4
Verify oral clearance.
The oral cavity is checked for residual food.
Weak facial muscles can lead to food pocketing on the right side, which can be aspirated later if not removed.
5
Prevent post-meal complications.
The client remains in an upright position for at least 30 minutes.
This sustained posture prevents gastroesophageal reflux and silent aspiration of residual particles.

Key Concept

Aspiration precautions and feeding techniques for clients with dysphagia and unilateral facial weakness.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 798Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) antibiotic intermittent infusion (piggyback) to a client who is currently receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the priority nursing action before initiating the antibiotic infusion?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride solution using a medication reference guide.

Answer

Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride solution using a medication reference guide.
Before administering any medication through an existing continuous IV line, the nurse must verify that the new medication is compatible with the infusing fluid. Incompatibility can cause crystallization, precipitation, or deactivation of the medication, which poses a severe safety risk to the client, including the potential for an embolism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary continuous IV fluid and the prescribed intermittent medication.
The client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride and is prescribed an IV antibiotic.
Knowing both solutions is required to assess their interaction.
2
Recognize the risk of medication incompatibility when two fluids mix in the same IV line.
Determined that the two solutions will mix at the Y-site of the IV tubing.
Mixing incompatible fluids can lead to harmful precipitates or loss of drug efficacy.
3
Consult a reliable medication reference guide to check Y-site compatibility before hanging the antibiotic.
The safety of administering the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride is confirmed.
This is the mandatory safety standard to prevent medication errors and client harm.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safety
Question 799Question →

An intensive care nurse is caring for a hemodynamically unstable client who has a triple-lumen central venous catheter. The current continuous intravenous (IV) infusions are:

* Proximal port: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
* Medial port: 0.45% sodium chloride with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride at 75 mL/hr
* Distal port: Propofol emulsion for continuous sedation

The client's mean arterial pressure abruptly drops to 54 mmHg. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride and a continuous infusion of norepinephrine. Which action demonstrates the safest administration of these new prescriptions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV catheter to administer the fluid bolus and initiate the norepinephrine.

Answer

Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV catheter to administer the fluid bolus and initiate the norepinephrine.
Establishing a new large-bore peripheral IV is the safest action. When all central venous catheter lumens are occupied by high-risk, dedicated (TPN, propofol), or incompatible (potassium) continuous infusions, the nurse must obtain new vascular access. Although norepinephrine is a vesicant that is ideally infused via a central line, current critical care emergency guidelines permit temporary administration through a large-bore peripheral IV to prevent fatal delays in life-saving treatment during shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the safety constraints of the current continuous infusions on the central venous catheter.
The proximal line (TPN) and distal line (propofol) strictly require dedicated access. The medial line contains potassium chloride.
Mixing medications with TPN or propofol increases infection and incompatibility risks.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of rapidly bolusing fluid through the existing lumens.
Bolusing through the propofol line would rapidly push a sedative bolus into the client. Bolusing through the potassium line would deliver a fatal potassium bolus (speed shock).
Fluid boluses act as a rapid 'flush' for whatever medication is currently dwelling inside the IV tubing.
3
Determine the safest alternative access route for emergency resuscitation.
Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV to safely administer the fluids and temporary norepinephrine.
While central access is preferred for vasopressors, temporary peripheral administration is safe and indicated to prevent life-threatening delays during a hypotensive crisis when central lines are occupied.

Key Concept

IV Compatibility and Safe Administration of Parenteral Therapies during Emergencies
Question 800Question →

A nurse is caring for a client weighing 80 kg80\text{ kg} who is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone at 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} via a single patent 20-gauge peripheral IV line in the left forearm.

The client's respiratory status acutely worsens, with oxygen saturation dropping to 84% on room air and severe bilateral crackles present on auscultation. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of furosemide 1 mg/kg1\text{ mg/kg} IV push.

The available furosemide vial concentration is 10 mg/mL10\text{ mg/mL}. Facility policy mandates that IV furosemide must not be administered faster than 20 mg/min20\text{ mg/min} to prevent ototoxicity.

After multiple unsuccessful attempts to establish a second peripheral IV line by the vascular access team, which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the milrinone infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer 8 mL8\text{ mL} of furosemide over a minimum of 4 minutes, flush the line again, and resume the milrinone.

Answer

The nurse must pause the milrinone infusion, clear the line with a compatible flush, administer the correct volume of 8 mL8\text{ mL} furosemide slowly over at least 4 minutes, flush again, and restart the milrinone.
The correct sequence prioritizes client safety by preventing a dangerous chemical incompatibility while delivering the exact calculated dose (80 mg80\text{ mg} or 8 mL8\text{ mL}) over the required minimum time (4 minutes) to prevent ototoxicity. Pausing the milrinone temporarily is safe because its half-life is sufficiently long (2.3 to 2.4 hours) that a 5-minute pause will not precipitate immediate hemodynamic collapse, whereas untreated acute pulmonary edema is rapidly fatal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total required dose based on the client's weight.
80 kg×1 mg/kg=80 mg80\text{ kg} \times 1\text{ mg/kg} = 80\text{ mg} of furosemide.
Accurate weight-based dosing is critical for therapeutic efficacy.
2
Calculate the volume of medication to administer.
80 mg÷10 mg/mL=8 mL80\text{ mg} \div 10\text{ mg/mL} = 8\text{ mL}.
Converts the ordered dose into the administrable liquid volume.
3
Determine the minimum safe administration time.
80 mg÷20 mg/min=4 minutes80\text{ mg} \div 20\text{ mg/min} = 4\text{ minutes}.
Rapid administration of high-dose loop diuretics can cause permanent ototoxicity (hearing loss).
4
Assess IV compatibility and determine the administration sequence.
Milrinone and furosemide are incompatible. The nurse must use the stop-flush-push-flush-start sequence.
Mixing incompatible medications causes precipitation. When only one IV line is available, the continuous infusion must be temporarily paused and the line flushed before and after the push medication.

Key Concept

Management of incompatible intravenous medications and weight-based dosage calculations.
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