Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 1761Question →

A client, aged 62, presents to the acute care unit following three days of severe, intractable vomiting. Upon initial assessment, the client is lethargic with pale, cool skin. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals a heart rate of 118 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 86/52 mm Hg, and a shallow respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The laboratory reports the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH 7.54, PaCO2PaCO_2 50 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 36 mEq/L, and PaO2PaO_2 88 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration?

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Answer: Administer a prescribed intravenous fluid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The nurse should prioritize administering a prescribed intravenous fluid bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The client is experiencing hypovolemic shock and metabolic alkalosis secondary to severe vomiting. Vomiting causes a significant loss of fluid and gastric acid (hydrochloric acid). The tachycardia, hypotension, and pale skin are classic signs of decreased intravascular volume. The elevated pH and bicarbonate levels confirm metabolic alkalosis, while the shallow respiratory rate and elevated carbon dioxide level represent the body's compensatory hypoventilation to retain acid. Administering an isotonic crystalloid like 0.9% sodium chloride is the priority because it rapidly restores intravascular volume to treat the shock, and the chloride content helps the kidneys excrete excess bicarbonate, resolving the alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
Tachycardia (118 bpm), hypotension (86/52 mm Hg), and pale, cool skin indicate hypovolemic shock due to severe fluid loss from vomiting.
Identifying the primary physiological threat is required to determine the priority intervention.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
Elevated pH (7.54) and elevated HCO3- (36 mEq/L) indicate metabolic alkalosis resulting from the loss of gastric acid. The elevated PaCO2 (50 mm Hg) and low respiratory rate (10 breaths/min) represent a compensatory hypoventilation mechanism.
Accurate ABG interpretation ensures the nurse does not inappropriately intervene against a helpful compensatory response.
3
Select the intervention that addresses both the fluid deficit and the acid-base imbalance.
Isotonic fluid replacement with 0.9% sodium chloride is the priority action.
The fluid restores intravascular volume to treat the life-threatening shock, and the chloride content helps the kidneys excrete excess bicarbonate to correct the alkalosis.

Key Concept

Management of Hypovolemic Shock and Metabolic Alkalosis
Question 1762Question →

A client is recovering in the surgical unit on the first postoperative day following a left total knee arthroplasty. The client reports mild leg discomfort and requests an adjustment to their resting position in bed. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote comfort and prevent postoperative complications?

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Answer: Place a small, rolled towel under the client's left ankle to maintain joint extension.

Answer

The correct action is to place a small, rolled towel under the client's left ankle to maintain joint extension.
Placing a rolled towel or small pillow under the ankle allows the knee to rest in full extension without applying pressure to the heel. This position promotes venous return, prevents heel tissue breakdown, and critically prevents the development of a knee flexion contracture, which is a major complication that would severely impair the client's ability to bear weight and walk during rehabilitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure and timeline.
The client is 24 hours post-left total knee arthroplasty (TKA), meaning the joint is highly susceptible to contractures and the client is at risk for immobility complications.
Understanding the specific risks associated with TKA guides the selection of safe positioning interventions.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of each positioning or care option.
Placing a towel under the ankle keeps the knee straight (extended) and floats the heel. Placing a pillow under the knee causes flexion. Sudden confusion is a sign of acute illness, not normal aging. Delegating fresh post-op joint exercises to a nursing assistant is unsafe.
Comparing each action against standard postoperative protocols identifies the evidence-based nursing intervention.
3
Select the intervention that addresses comfort while preventing specific TKA complications.
Supporting the ankle maintains extension (preventing contractures) and offloads pressure from the heel, making it the safest and most effective choice.
Preventing knee flexion contractures is a primary goal in early TKA recovery to ensure successful ambulation.

Key Concept

Correct postoperative positioning following a total knee arthroplasty requires maintaining the knee in full extension to prevent severe joint contractures.
Question 1763Question →

The emergency response team is caring for a young adult experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation. Initial assessment reveals prominent accessory muscle use, marked agitation, and loud expiratory wheezes. Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) values on room air demonstrate a pH of 7.507.50, PaCO 2_2 of 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}, HCO 3−_3^- of 23 mEq/L23\text{ mEq/L}, and PaO 2_2 of 64 mm Hg64\text{ mm Hg}. Following administration of intravenous methylprednisolone and continuous bronchodilator therapy, a reassessment is performed two hours later. The client is now lethargic with barely audible breath sounds. A follow-up ABG on a 40%40\% Venturi mask reveals a pH of 7.367.36, PaCO 2_2 of 44 mm Hg44\text{ mm Hg}, HCO 3−_3^- of 24 mEq/L24\text{ mEq/L}, and PaO 2_2 of 54 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}. Based on these clinical findings, which action should the nurse take immediately?

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Answer: Prepare for rapid sequence intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare for rapid sequence intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The correct answer addresses the immediate life-threatening issue. The client is exhibiting signs of impending respiratory failure. During an acute asthma exacerbation, initial hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). As the client fatigues, ventilation decreases, causing the PaCO2 to rise back into the 'normal' range (pseudonormalization) and the pH to drop. Combined with clinical signs of decompensation such as lethargy and a 'silent chest' (inaudible breath sounds due to critical airway narrowing), these findings indicate that the client can no longer maintain adequate ventilation. The immediate priority is securing the airway through endotracheal intubation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial ABG and clinical presentation.
The initial ABG shows respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low PaCO2) with hypoxemia, which is typical in early asthma due to compensatory hyperventilation. The client is agitated but actively breathing.
Establishing a baseline is necessary to evaluate the response to treatment.
2
Analyze the follow-up ABG and clinical presentation.
The follow-up ABG shows a 'normalizing' pH and PaCO2, but worsening hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen. Clinically, the client has progressed from agitated and wheezing to lethargic with barely audible breath sounds ('silent chest').
Identifying changes in the clinical picture determines the current trajectory of the client's condition.
3
Correlate the objective data with physiological adaptation concepts.
A rising PaCO2 in a client with a severe asthma attack who is becoming lethargic indicates respiratory muscle fatigue. The 'normal' PaCO2 of 44 mm Hg is actually pseudonormalization and represents impending respiratory failure.
Understanding the pathophysiology of severe asthma prevents the misinterpretation of 'normal' lab values.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing action.
The client requires immediate definitive airway management (intubation and mechanical ventilation) to prevent respiratory arrest.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritization, an impending loss of airway and breathing takes precedence over all other interventions.

Key Concept

In a severe asthma exacerbation, a 'normalizing' PaCO2 alongside decreased breath sounds (silent chest) and altered mental status (lethargy) indicates respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure, requiring immediate intubation.
Question 1764Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L2.6 \text{ mEq/L}. The provider prescribes 20 mEq20 \text{ mEq} of intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) diluted in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% normal saline to be infused over 1 hour1 \text{ hour}. The client has a 22-gauge peripheral IV in the right forearm and a double-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) in the left arm. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Administer the infusion via the PICC line using an electronic infusion pump.

Answer

The nurse should administer the infusion via the PICC line using an electronic infusion pump.
The prescription calls for a rate of 20 mEq/hr and a concentration of 20 mEq/100 mL. Both of these values exceed the standard safety limits for peripheral intravenous administration (maximum 10 mEq/hr and 10 mEq/100 mL). Because the client has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), the nurse can safely administer this higher rate and concentration centrally. Intravenous potassium must always be administered using an electronic infusion pump to prevent rapid infusion and subsequent cardiac arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication dose, concentration, and administration rate.
The prescription is for 20 mEq of KCl in 100 mL to be given over 1 hour. The hourly rate is 20 mEq/hr and the concentration is 20 mEq/100 mL.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication with strict limits on rate and concentration to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias and severe vein damage.
2
Compare the prescribed parameters to safe administration limits for peripheral versus central lines.
Peripheral IV limits are generally a maximum of 10 mEq/hr and 10 mEq/100 mL. Central line limits safely allow up to 20 mEq/hr (and higher in critical care with continuous monitoring).
Determining the correct route ensures patient safety and prevents medication errors related to route of administration.
3
Select the appropriate route and equipment based on the available venous access and safety guidelines.
The PICC line must be used because both the rate and concentration exceed peripheral safety thresholds. An electronic infusion pump must always be used.
Central lines deposit irritating medications into larger, high-flow vessels, preventing phlebitis. Electronic infusion pumps prevent accidental free-flow.

Key Concept

Intravenous Potassium Chloride (KCl) Administration Safety
Question 1765Question →

A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare and administer medications to assigned clients. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse require immediate intervention by the charge nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Connecting a secondary infusion of pantoprazole to the Y-site of a single-lumen central venous catheter infusing total parenteral nutrition (TPN).; Using a 3-mL syringe to flush a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) with 0.9% sodium chloride.; Programming the electronic infusion pump to deliver a 20 mEq potassium chloride intravenous piggyback over 30 minutes.; Initiating a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) through a peripheral intravenous line infusing 5% dextrose in water (D5W).

Answer

The charge nurse must intervene on four unsafe actions: piggybacking medications into a dedicated TPN line, using a 3-mL syringe to flush a PICC, infusing potassium chloride at a dangerous rate of 40 mEq/hr, and infusing PRBCs with a dextrose solution.
The correct selections represent critical safety violations in parenteral therapy that demand immediate intervention. TPN requires a dedicated line to avoid severe incompatibilities. Flushing a central line with a small barrel syringe (like 3-mL) creates extreme pressure that can rupture the catheter. Intravenous potassium chloride must be infused slowly (max 10-20 mEq/hr); administering 20 mEq over 30 minutes results in 40 mEq/hr, which can induce cardiac arrest. Finally, blood products must only be infused with 0.9% normal saline, as dextrose solutions cause hemolysis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each nursing action to determine if it violates pharmacological safety standards or parenteral administration guidelines.
Identified four unsafe practices that require intervention and two safe practices.
Identifying safety violations is critical to prevent adverse events such as catheter rupture, medication incompatibilities, or life-threatening arrhythmias.
2
Evaluate the safe practices to confirm they do not require intervention.
Confirmed that administering furosemide 20 mg over 2 minutes and pausing enteral feedings for phenytoin are safe, evidence-based practices.
Correctly identifying safe practices prevents unnecessary interruption of standard, correct care.

Key Concept

Safe Parenteral Therapy and Medication Administration Principles
Question 1766Question →

An adult client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure requires inotropic support. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous dobutamine infusion at a dose of 5 mcg/kg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client's current weight is 80 kg80\text{ kg}. The medication is supplied as a pre-mixed bag containing 500 mg500\text{ mg} of dobutamine in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water. Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}. Record your answer as a whole number.

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Answer: 12

Answer

12
The correct infusion rate is 12 mL/hr. The patient requires 400 mcg of dobutamine per minute (80 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min). Over one hour (60 minutes), this equals 24,000 mcg, or 24 mg. Because the IV bag contains a concentration of 2 mg per 1 mL (500 mg / 250 mL), delivering 24 mg requires an infusion rate of 12 mL/hr.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total dose required per minute.
80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80\text{ kg} \times 5\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400\text{ mcg/min}
Weight-based dosing requires determining the individualized dose based on the client's current weight.
2
Convert the dose from per minute to per hour.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 24,000\text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, so the medication dose must be standardized to an hourly rate.
3
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
24,000 mcg/hr÷1000 mcg/mg=24 mg/hr24,000\text{ mcg/hr} \div 1000\text{ mcg/mg} = 24\text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication is measured in milligrams, so the requested dose must match the provided unit of measurement.
4
Calculate the concentration of the supplied medication.
500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 2\text{ mg/mL}
Determining the amount of medication in each milliliter is required to calculate the final infusion rate.
5
Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr.
24 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12 mL/hr24\text{ mg/hr} \div 2\text{ mg/mL} = 12\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the fluid volume needed per hour.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation
Question 1767Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who was admitted 12 hours ago with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness thermal burns over 40% of their total body surface area. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse identify as expected physiological responses during this emergent (resuscitative) phase? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L); Hematocrit of 56% (0.56); Sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 118 beats/min

Answer

The expected clinical findings are a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L, a hematocrit of 56%, and sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 118 beats/min.
During the emergent phase of a major burn injury (the first 24-48 hours), massive capillary permeability allows fluid, plasma proteins, and electrolytes to rapidly shift from the vascular space into the interstitial space. This extreme intravascular volume loss leads to hemoconcentration, which is reflected by an elevated hematocrit. The sympathetic nervous system responds to the resulting hypovolemia by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) in an attempt to maintain cardiac output. Additionally, the destruction of millions of cells releases massive amounts of intracellular potassium directly into the bloodstream, resulting in hyperkalemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the phase of the burn injury based on the timeline.
The client is 12 hours post-injury, placing them in the emergent (resuscitative) phase, which lasts for the first 24 to 48 hours.
Different phases of burn care have vastly different, and sometimes opposite, expected physiological adaptations.
2
Recall the major pathophysiological changes that occur during the emergent phase.
Massive capillary permeability causes a systemic inflammatory response, leading to fluid shifting from the vascular space into the interstitial space (third-spacing). Concurrently, major cellular destruction occurs at the burn sites.
Understanding the underlying mechanism allows for logical deduction of assessment findings rather than pure memorization.
3
Evaluate each option against the anticipated pathophysiological shifts.
Cellular destruction releases intracellular potassium (causing hyperkalemia). Vascular fluid loss leaves blood cells concentrated (causing elevated hematocrit). Hypovolemia triggers sympathetic compensation (causing tachycardia) while decreasing kidney perfusion (causing decreased urine output) and tissue perfusion (causing metabolic acidosis).
This confirms which clinical findings are expected adaptations versus abnormal complications or incorrect interpretations.

Key Concept

Burn Injury: Emergent Phase Pathophysiology
Question 1768Question →

A client admitted with urosepsis has the following clinical parameters documented over a four-hour period:

Parameter06:00 AM10:00 AM
Temperature37.4°C (99.3°F)38.8°C (101.8°F)
Blood Pressure122/78 mm Hg108/52 mm Hg
Heart Rate82 beats/min116 beats/min
Respiratory Rate16 breaths/min28 breaths/min

What is the most accurate interpretation of these clinical findings?

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Answer: Early hyperdynamic septic shock, indicated by tachycardia and a widened pulse pressure

Answer

The client is exhibiting signs of early hyperdynamic septic shock, characterized by a widened pulse pressure and tachycardia.
In the early, hyperdynamic ('warm') stage of septic shock, systemic inflammatory mediators trigger massive vasodilation. This causes a precipitous drop in systemic vascular resistance, which lowers the diastolic blood pressure more significantly than the systolic pressure, resulting in a widened pulse pressure. This physiological adaptation occurs concurrently with compensatory tachycardia and fever.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the blood pressure trend to calculate the pulse pressure.
The pulse pressure at 06:00 AM was 44 mm Hg (122 - 78). At 10:00 AM, the pulse pressure widened to 56 mm Hg (108 - 52).
Pulse pressure trends help distinguish the underlying physiological mechanism of shock (vasodilation vs. vasoconstriction).
2
Evaluate the respiratory rate change in the context of acid-base balance.
The rate increased significantly to 28 breaths/min, which causes excess carbon dioxide elimination.
Tachypnea typically leads to respiratory alkalosis, definitively ruling out respiratory acidosis as an interpretation.
3
Synthesize all clinical data to identify the current hemodynamic status.
The combination of fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, and a widening pulse pressure points to massive systemic vasodilation.
These findings are the classic hallmark signs of the early (warm) hyperdynamic phase of septic shock.

Key Concept

Early Signs of Septic Shock (Hyperdynamic Phase)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1769Question →

An older adult client returns to the medical-surgical unit immediately following a lumbar puncture. The client appears restless, reports mild discomfort at the insertion site, and frequently reaches toward the lower back dressing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote client comfort and prevent complications?

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Answer: Assist the client to maintain a flat, side-lying or supine position while providing a calm environment.

Answer

The nurse should assist the client to maintain a flat, side-lying or supine position while providing a calm environment.
The correct action is to keep the client in a flat position (either supine or side-lying). Following a lumbar puncture, clients must remain flat for a prescribed duration (typically 4 to 8 hours) to prevent the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, which can cause a debilitating spinal headache. Providing a calm environment addresses the client's restlessness using a safe, non-pharmacologic approach.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical situation and recent procedure.
The client has just undergone a lumbar puncture and is exhibiting restlessness and mild discomfort.
Identifying the specific post-procedure requirements is essential for determining safe basic care and positioning.
2
Evaluate the standard positioning guidelines following a lumbar puncture.
Standard practice requires the client to remain flat (supine or side-lying) for 4 to 8 hours.
Staying flat prevents the gravity-induced leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the dural puncture site, which is the primary cause of severe post-dural puncture headaches.
3
Review the other proposed actions for safety and scope of practice.
Elevating the head is clinically contraindicated; delegating the assessment to a UAP violates delegation principles; and applying restraints without trying alternatives violates safety protocols.
Nursing actions must prioritize evidence-based safety, proper delegation of clinical judgment, and the use of the least restrictive interventions.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning and Basic Care
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1770Question →

A client weighing 192 lbs192 \text{ lbs} is receiving treatment for a stable ventricular tachycardia. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous infusion of amiodarone at 0.5 mg/min0.5 \text{ mg/min}. The pharmacy supplies an amiodarone infusion bag containing 900 mg900 \text{ mg} in 500 mL500 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose5\% \text{ dextrose} in water (D5WD_5W). At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the nurse set the infusion pump? Record your answer using one decimal place.

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Answer: 16.7

Answer

16.7
The correct infusion rate of 16.7 mL/hr16.7 \text{ mL/hr} is calculated by first recognizing that the client's weight is not needed for a non-weight-based dose. Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose (0.5 mg/min×60=30 mg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/min} \times 60 = 30 \text{ mg/hr}). Then, determine the concentration of the IV fluid (900 mg÷500 mL=1.8 mg/mL900 \text{ mg} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 1.8 \text{ mg/mL}). Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration to find the correct pump rate (30÷1.8=16.666...30 \div 1.8 = 16.666...) and round to one decimal place.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the required medication dose per hour.
0.5 mg/min×60 min/hr=30 mg/hr0.5 \text{ mg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 30 \text{ mg/hr}
The infusion pump operates in mL/hr, so the prescribed mg/min dose must be converted to an hourly rate. The client's weight is extraneous data.
2
Calculate the concentration of the supplied medication.
900 mg÷500 mL=1.8 mg/mL900 \text{ mg} \div 500 \text{ mL} = 1.8 \text{ mg/mL}
Finding the concentration allows you to convert the required hourly dose from milligrams to milliliters.
3
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr.
30 mg/hr÷1.8 mg/mL=16.666... mL/hr30 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.8 \text{ mg/mL} = 16.666... \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the desired hourly dose by the concentration provides the volume of fluid to be infused per hour.
4
Round the final calculation to one decimal place.
16.716.7
Clinical calculations must follow precise rounding rules as instructed in the question stem.

Key Concept

Continuous IV Infusion Calculation and Extraneous Data Identification
Question 1771Question →

Two nurses are preparing to move a conscious, partially mobile client up in bed using a friction-reducing draw sheet. Place the steps of this procedure in the correct chronological order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with positioning the bed for safety and body mechanics, followed by protecting the client's head, positioning the client to assist, grasping the draw sheet securely, and finally performing the synchronized movement.
The procedure for moving a client up in bed requires sequential prioritization of nurse ergonomics and client safety. The environment is prepared first by flattening and raising the bed to prevent staff injury. Next, the client's head is protected with a pillow against the headboard. The client is then positioned to actively assist by bending their knees, which reduces the nurses' workload. Finally, the nurses establish a secure grip and use momentum via weight shifting to safely complete the task.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Adjust the bed to a flat position and raise it to the working height of the nurses' waists.
The bed is flat, reducing gravity, and is at a height that prevents strain.
Proper body mechanics dictate working at waist level to prevent back injuries. A flat bed prevents working against gravity during the pull.
2
Remove the pillow from under the client's head and place it upright against the headboard.
The client's head rests on the mattress and the headboard is padded.
This crucial safety step protects the client's head from accidentally striking the hard headboard when gliding toward the top of the bed.
3
Instruct the client to cross their arms over the chest and bend their knees with feet flat on the mattress.
The client is in a compact position ready to assist with the move.
Crossing arms reduces surface friction. Bending the knees allows the client to push with their legs, decreasing the physical effort required from the nursing staff.
4
Roll the edges of the draw sheet tightly against the client's sides and grasp it securely.
The nurses have a firm grip close to the client's body.
Grasping close to the client's center of gravity maximizes biomechanical leverage, making the lift safer and more controlled.
5
Synchronize the movement by shifting weight from the back leg to the front leg on a count of three.
The client is successfully and safely moved up in the bed.
A synchronized count ensures smooth movement. Shifting weight uses the nurses' larger leg and core muscles, preventing dangerous lower back strain.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Safe Client Handling and Mobility
Question 1772Question →

A client is 48 hours post-operative following a right above-the-knee amputation and reports phantom limb sensations. The healthcare team is focusing on promoting optimal long-term mobility and physical comfort. Which action should the nurse implement?

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Answer: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day.

Answer

The nurse should assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day to prevent hip flexion contractures.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the prevention of hip flexion contractures is essential for the future fitting and use of a prosthetic device. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day fully extends the hip joint, counteracting the flexion that naturally occurs when the client is sitting or lying supine. This is a standard core nursing intervention for maintaining optimal joint mobility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the time elapsed since the surgical procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-operative.
Nursing interventions for amputation care change based on the surgical timeline, specifically concerning elevation after the first 24 hours.
2
Determine the primary mobility complication associated with above-the-knee amputations.
Hip flexion contractures are the most significant risk that can impair future prosthetic fitting and mobility.
Prolonged flexion of the hip joint must be actively avoided to preserve a full range of motion.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly counteracts hip flexion.
Prone positioning is chosen over elevation or prolonged sitting.
Lying flat on the stomach fully extends the hip joint, counteracting the flexion that occurs in a supine or sitting position.

Key Concept

Prevention of hip flexion contractures in post-amputation clients through proper positioning
Question 1773Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. The client's vital signs upon admission to the unit were blood pressure 126/78 mm Hg, heart rate 76 beats/min, and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min. The client's current vital signs are blood pressure 112/86 mm Hg, heart rate 114 beats/min, and respiratory rate 22 breaths/min. The client reports mild abdominal aching. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Assess the surgical dressing and abdomen for signs of bleeding.

Answer

The priority nursing action is to assess the surgical dressing and abdomen for signs of bleeding.
The client is demonstrating early signs of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock, evidenced by a narrowing pulse pressure (from 48 mm Hg to 26 mm Hg) and new-onset tachycardia. In early shock, the sympathetic nervous system initiates peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain cardiac output, which raises the diastolic blood pressure, while the systolic blood pressure begins to drop or remains initially stable. This results in a narrowed pulse pressure. The priority action is to assess the client's abdomen and surgical dressing for active bleeding to gather critical data before implementing further interventions or notifying the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the baseline and current vital signs to identify any significant trends.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 48 mm Hg (126 - 78) to 26 mm Hg (112 - 86), and the heart rate has increased from 76 to 114 beats/min.
Identifying subtle changes in hemodynamics is critical for early detection of postoperative complications.
2
Correlate the vital sign trends with potential physiological adaptations and complications.
A narrowing pulse pressure and unexplained tachycardia in a postoperative client are classic early indicators of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock.
The sympathetic nervous system compensates for decreased blood volume by causing peripheral vasoconstriction (raising diastolic pressure) and increasing the heart rate.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the identified complication.
The nurse must immediately assess the surgical site and abdomen to confirm the source of bleeding.
Assessment is the first step of the nursing process and provides critical data needed before notifying the healthcare provider.

Key Concept

Early Signs of Hypovolemic Shock and Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1774Question →

A client with hypertensive emergency is admitted to the intensive care unit with a blood pressure of 240/130 mmHg240/130 \text{ mmHg}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside. Forty-eight hours later, the nurse notes that the client has become severely agitated and disoriented, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min28 \text{ breaths/min}. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.257.25, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 30 mmHg30 \text{ mmHg}, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 14 mEq/L14 \text{ mEq/L}. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Stop the nitroprusside infusion and prepare to administer intravenous sodium thiosulfate.

Answer

Stop the nitroprusside infusion and prepare to administer intravenous sodium thiosulfate.
Sodium nitroprusside metabolism produces cyanide. Prolonged infusions, high doses, or renal and hepatic impairment can lead to life-threatening cyanide toxicity. The clinical presentation of severe agitation, disorientation, and uncompensated or partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with compensatory tachypnea (low PaCO2) strongly indicates cyanide toxicity. The priority nursing action is to immediately stop the offending agent and administer an antidote, such as sodium thiosulfate, to facilitate cyanide excretion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's new clinical presentation.
The client has developed sudden agitation, disorientation, and tachypnea after 48 hours of continuous nitroprusside therapy.
Identifying acute changes in neurological and respiratory status is critical for detecting severe adverse medication effects.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG indicates a partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with compensatory tachypnea (low PaCO2).
Severe metabolic acidosis in a client receiving prolonged nitroprusside therapy is a hallmark sign of cyanide toxicity due to cellular hypoxia.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the assessment.
The infusion must be stopped immediately and an antidote (such as sodium thiosulfate) administered to facilitate cyanide excretion.
Cyanide toxicity is a life-threatening emergency; the root cause must be eliminated before attempting to manage secondary symptoms like agitation or tachypnea.

Key Concept

Sodium nitroprusside metabolism produces cyanide. Prolonged infusions, high doses, or renal/hepatic impairment can lead to life-threatening cyanide toxicity, manifesting as altered mental status and severe metabolic acidosis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the drug and administration of an antidote.
Question 1775Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a spinal cord injury at the T4 level one month ago. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and blurred vision. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis and flushing above the level of injury, and the blood pressure is 215/115 mmHg215/115 \text{ mmHg}. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate physiological safety by altering hemodynamics, followed by systematically identifying and removing the physical triggers, utilizing pharmacological therapy if conservative measures fail, and concluding with documentation.
In autonomic dysreflexia, a massive sympathetic response occurs due to a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. The absolute priority is to immediately lower the blood pressure to prevent a stroke, which is achieved first by elevating the head of the bed. Next, the nurse must systematically identify and eliminate the stimulus. Bladder issues are the most common cause, followed by bowel impaction. If removing these physical triggers does not resolve the crisis, antihypertensive medications are administered. Documentation is completed last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position.
Blood pressure begins to decrease due to orthostatic changes.
Reduces venous return and immediate risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
2
Assess the urinary catheter for kinks and the bladder for distension.
Identifies or resolves the most frequent cause of the sympathetic surge.
Bladder distension is the leading noxious stimulus that triggers autonomic dysreflexia.
3
Assess for bowel impaction if the urinary system is draining appropriately.
Rules out or resolves the second most common trigger.
Gastrointestinal irritation, such as constipation or impaction, can sustain the reflex.
4
Administer the prescribed PRN rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacological reduction of severe hypertension.
Necessary if the blood pressure remains dangerously high despite removing physical triggers.
5
Document the precipitating trigger, nursing interventions, and the client's physiological response.
Maintains accurate medical records.
Documentation occurs after the client is safe and stabilized.

Key Concept

Management of Autonomic Dysreflexia
Question 1776Question →

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a cast on the right lower leg and is prescribed standard axillary crutches. The client has a strict non-weight-bearing status on the right leg. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding how to correctly ascend a flight of stairs?

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Answer: Place body weight on the crutches and advance the left leg up to the step first.

Answer

Place body weight on the crutches and advance the left leg up to the step first.
When ascending stairs with crutches, the client must use the 'up with the good' technique. This involves supporting the body weight on the crutches while advancing the unaffected (good) leg to the next step. Once the unaffected leg is secure on the step, the client transfers their weight to that leg and brings both the crutches and the affected leg up to the same step. This maintains balance and ensures no weight is placed on the injured extremity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's weight-bearing status and the affected extremity.
The client is strictly non-weight-bearing on the right leg.
Understanding which leg is unaffected (left) is crucial for determining the correct movement sequence on stairs.
2
Recall the standard principle for crutch walking on stairs.
The principle is 'up with the good, down with the bad.'
This mnemonic helps remember that the unaffected (good) leg leads when ascending, and the affected (bad) leg leads when descending.
3
Determine the sequence of movements for ascending stairs.
The body weight must be supported by the crutches while the unaffected left leg is moved up to the next step.
The unaffected leg must establish a stable base of support on the higher level before the crutches and the affected leg can be safely lifted.

Key Concept

Crutch Walking on Stairs
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1777Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) push metoprolol through a client's peripheral saline lock. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Assess the IV site, cleanse the injection port, aspirate and flush with saline, administer the medication, and finally flush with saline at the same rate as the medication.
The sequence for administering an IV push medication through a saline lock is built on patient safety and the standard SAS (Saline, Administer, Saline) method. First, the nurse visually and physically assesses the site for complications. Second, the port is cleansed to maintain asepsis. Third, a pre-flush with normal saline verifies patency and intravascular placement. Fourth, the medication is administered at the prescribed rate. Finally, a post-flush is administered at the exact same rate as the medication to ensure the drug remaining in the extension tubing is not inadvertently delivered as a rapid bolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the intravenous insertion site.
Ensures the site is free of complications like infiltration or phlebitis.
Safety verification must occur before physically manipulating the site.
2
Cleanse the injection port with an antiseptic swab.
Removes pathogens from the access hub.
Strict asepsis is required before accessing the vascular system.
3
Aspirate for blood return and flush the catheter with normal saline.
Confirms catheter patency and correct placement in the vein.
Prevents inadvertent administration of medication into surrounding subcutaneous tissue.
4
Administer the medication slowly over the recommended time.
Delivers the therapeutic agent safely.
Rapid administration of IV push medications can cause severe adverse reactions, such as speed shock or severe bradycardia in the case of metoprolol.
5
Flush the catheter with normal saline at the same rate as the medication.
Clears the residual medication from the extension tubing into the client's circulation.
If the final flush is administered too quickly, the medication lingering in the tubing will be delivered as a rapid bolus, negating the safety of the slow medication push.

Key Concept

Safe administration of IV push medications via a saline lock follows the SAS (Saline-Administer-Saline) method, prioritizing site assessment, asepsis, patency verification, and controlling the post-flush rate to prevent bolus effects.
Question 1778Question →

A 42-year-old client with severe iron deficiency anemia is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) on the medical-surgical unit. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the client suddenly reports severe lower back pain, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. The nurse observes that the client is flushed and shivering. Place the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then maintain intravenous access with new tubing, assess the client's status, notify the healthcare provider and blood bank, and finally send all required specimens and equipment to the laboratory.
In the event of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the sequence of actions must prioritize preventing further harm. The absolute first action is to stop the transfusion. Second, the nurse must maintain patent intravenous access for emergency fluids and medications; crucially, this requires disconnecting the old blood tubing at the hub and attaching completely new tubing primed with normal saline to avoid pushing residual incompatible blood into the client. Third, with the threat stopped and access secured, the nurse rapidly assesses the client's vital signs and respiratory status. Fourth, the nurse notifies the healthcare provider to obtain emergency prescriptions and alerts the blood bank. Finally, per facility protocol, the remaining blood, tubing, and newly drawn client samples (blood and urine) are sent to the laboratory to identify the specific cause of the reaction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Immediately stop the infusion of the packed red blood cells.
The flow of the potentially incompatible blood product into the client's bloodstream is halted.
This is the most critical immediate action to minimize the volume of incompatible blood entering the systemic circulation and to reduce the severity of the acute hemolytic reaction.
2
Disconnect the blood tubing at the catheter hub and initiate normal saline with new intravenous tubing.
Intravenous access is maintained for emergency medications and fluid resuscitation without exposing the client to more blood.
Using completely new tubing prevents the residual blood contained in the old tubing from being inadvertently flushed into the client's vein during line maintenance.
3
Assess the client's hemodynamic status, lung sounds, and vital signs.
The nurse obtains critical baseline physiological data regarding the client's respiratory and cardiovascular status.
Rapid assessment dictates the immediate emergency interventions required and provides essential data to communicate to the healthcare provider.
4
Notify the prescribing healthcare provider and the facility's blood bank.
The medical team is activated to provide emergency prescriptions and blood bank protocols are initiated.
The provider must prescribe interventions (such as vasopressors, antihistamines, or fluids) to manage the reaction, and the blood bank must prepare for a transfusion reaction investigation.
5
Collect the blood bag, attached tubing, and newly drawn client blood and urine samples to send to the laboratory.
All required specimens and materials are sent for diagnostic analysis.
The blood bank analyzes the remaining product and client samples to confirm the type of reaction (such as ABO incompatibility) and rule out bacterial contamination or other causes.

Key Concept

Prioritization and Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 1779Question →

A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit who suddenly develops severe dyspnea, a respiratory rate of 34/min, and produces pink, frothy sputum. Crackles are auscultated throughout both lung fields. Arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing acute pulmonary edema is to first position the client upright with legs dangling, then apply high-flow oxygen, followed by administering intravenous furosemide, and finally inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
In cases of acute pulmonary edema, nursing priorities follow the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) framework combined with hemodynamic principles. Positioning the client upright with legs dangling is the fastest way to reduce venous return (preload) and improve lung expansion. Oxygen is applied immediately after to treat severe hypoxemia. Intravenous diuretics are then given to actively remove excess fluid. Finally, a urinary catheter is placed to monitor the therapeutic response to the diuretic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client upright with legs dangling over the edge of the bed.
Immediate reduction in venous return and improvement in lung expansion.
Airway and Breathing take priority. Positioning uses gravity to reduce preload, instantly decreasing pulmonary congestion without needing to wait for equipment or medication.
2
Apply high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask.
Increased alveolar oxygen concentration.
Pink, frothy sputum and profound tachypnea indicate severe pulmonary edema and hypoxemia. Supplying oxygen maximizes gas exchange in the unaffected alveoli.
3
Administer the prescribed intravenous furosemide.
Initiation of rapid diuresis and vasodilation.
Once immediate cardiopulmonary support is established, pharmacological intervention is required to actively pull fluid out of the pulmonary circulation by reducing overall vascular volume.
4
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Continuous monitoring of urine output.
This is a necessary monitoring step to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the loop diuretic, but it must not delay the life-saving interventions in steps 1-3.

Key Concept

Prioritization of interventions in acute pulmonary edema (ABC approach combined with preload reduction).
Question 1780Question →

A client with a documented history of advanced emphysema arrives at the emergency department exhibiting profound lethargy and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Paramedics report initiating supplemental oxygen at 6 liters per minute via simple face mask during transport. Stat arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.24, PaCO2 of 78 mm Hg, PaO2 of 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 35 mEq/L. Which action must the nurse prioritize to minimize the client's risk for cardiopulmonary arrest?

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Answer: Prepare the equipment for immediate noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation.

Answer

Prepare the equipment for immediate noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation.
The arterial blood gas results demonstrate uncompensated or partially compensated severe respiratory acidosis. The clinical findings of profound lethargy and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicate CO2 narcosis, a life-threatening complication often triggered in COPD clients by the administration of excessive supplemental oxygen. The immediate priority is to support the client's breathing and blow off the excess carbon dioxide through mechanical ventilation (such as BiPAP or endotracheal intubation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas values and vital signs.
The low pH (7.24) and high PaCO2 (78 mm Hg) indicate severe respiratory acidosis. The elevated HCO3 (35 mEq/L) shows partial metabolic compensation from chronic disease. The respiratory rate of 8 and profound lethargy indicate hypoventilation and CO2 narcosis.
Accurate interpretation of ABGs in conjunction with the clinical presentation is required to identify the primary physiological disruption.
2
Identify the etiology of the acute decompensation.
The client with advanced emphysema was given a high flow of oxygen (6 liters/minute), which suppressed their hypoxic drive to breathe, leading to dangerous carbon dioxide retention.
Understanding the pathophysiology of COPD and oxygen therapy prevents interventions that could worsen the condition.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention.
The client cannot adequately ventilate independently to clear the retained carbon dioxide, necessitating mechanical support.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), securing the airway and assisting ventilation is the most critical action to prevent imminent cardiopulmonary collapse.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Respiratory Acidosis and CO2 Narcosis
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