Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 1741Question →

A 72-year-old client who underwent a diagnostic lumbar puncture two hours ago rings the call bell. The client reports a severe, throbbing headache that significantly worsens when attempting to sit up, and the client appears mildly disoriented to time. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action to promote comfort and safety?

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Answer: Maintain the client in a strictly flat, supine position and encourage increased oral hydration.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to maintain the client in a strictly flat, supine position and encourage increased oral hydration.
The correct action directly addresses the etiology of a post-dural puncture headache. Following a lumbar puncture, leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can occur, leading to decreased intracranial volume. When the client sits upright, the brain sags, pulling on the meninges and causing severe pain. Maintaining a flat, supine position removes the gravitational pull, providing immediate comfort. Additionally, encouraging oral fluids (if not contraindicated) helps accelerate the body's natural production of CSF to replace what was lost.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and recent procedure.
The client has a severe headache worsening upon sitting up following a lumbar puncture.
This presentation is the classic hallmark of a post-dural puncture headache (spinal headache) caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
2
Identify the underlying physiological mechanism.
Decreased CSF volume causes the brain to sag downward when the client sits upright, placing traction on pain-sensitive meninges.
Understanding that gravity exacerbates the traction dictates the required positioning intervention.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention for basic care and comfort.
Position the client completely flat (supine) to eliminate the gravitational pull and provide fluids to help replace the lost CSF.
This conservative management approach directly addresses the physical cause of the discomfort while maintaining client safety.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Positioning and Comfort Interventions for Lumbar Puncture
Question 1742Question →

A client diagnosed with short bowel syndrome is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous dose of famotidine to be administered every 12 hours. Which action should the nurse take to safely administer this medication?

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Answer: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter and administer the famotidine through the new line.

Answer

The nurse must establish a separate peripheral intravenous line for the administration of the famotidine.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a complex mixture of glucose, amino acids, lipids, and electrolytes that is highly susceptible to precipitate formation when mixed with other medications. Additionally, due to the high glucose content, the line is at a significant risk for bacterial growth. Evidence-based nursing practice mandates that TPN must be administered through a completely dedicated intravenous line or a dedicated port of a multi-lumen central line. Because this client has only a single-lumen PICC currently dedicated to the TPN, it cannot be used for any other medications. The only safe and appropriate action is to establish a new, separate peripheral intravenous access to administer the famotidine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current intravenous access and infusions.
The client has a single-lumen PICC that is currently infusing continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Identifying the available routes is necessary to determine how to safely administer a newly prescribed intravenous medication.
2
Apply the core pharmacological principles regarding total parenteral nutrition.
TPN formulations are highly concentrated, prone to precipitation when mixed with other drugs, and carry a high infection risk, thus requiring a strictly dedicated intravenous line.
Maintaining a dedicated line for TPN is an essential patient safety standard.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for the famotidine order.
Since the single-lumen PICC cannot be shared, paused, or flushed for other medications, a new peripheral intravenous access must be obtained.
Establishing a new line ensures the TPN infusion remains uninterrupted and uncontaminated while allowing the safe administration of the prescribed antibiotic.

Key Concept

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must always be administered through a strictly dedicated intravenous line or lumen to prevent medication incompatibilities, precipitation, and infection.
Question 1743Question →

A 68-year-old client with advanced cirrhosis and refractory ascites is receiving care on a medical-surgical unit. The client's baseline blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg. Three hours after a large-volume paracentesis during which 6 liters of ascitic fluid were removed, the client reports feeling slightly fatigued and nauseated. The client's current vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 102/64 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. The abdominal dressing is dry and intact. What is the priority nursing action to mitigate the client's risk of further physiological decompensation?

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Answer: Place the client in a supine position with the lower extremities elevated and anticipate a prescription for an intravenous colloid infusion.

Answer

Place the client in a supine position with the lower extremities elevated and anticipate a prescription for an intravenous colloid infusion.
The client is experiencing early paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction (PICD), a form of hypovolemic shock triggered by rapid fluid shifts out of the vascular space following the removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid. Early indicators include tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, and a drop from baseline blood pressure. Elevating the lower extremities while supine uses gravity to enhance venous return to the right atrium, immediately improving cardiac output. The nurse must also anticipate administering an intravenous colloid, such as albumin, which increases intravascular oncotic pressure and pulls fluid back into the circulatory system to sustain tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends in the context of the recent procedure.
The blood pressure has dropped from a baseline of 132/82 mmHg to 102/64 mmHg, and the heart rate is elevated at 110 beats/minute.
Identifying changes from baseline is critical for recognizing early physiological decompensation before overt shock occurs.
2
Correlate the assessment findings with the pathophysiological risks of a large-volume paracentesis.
The removal of 6 liters of fluid causes a sudden decrease in intra-abdominal pressure, leading to rapid splanchnic vasodilation and fluid shifts out of the intravascular space.
Understanding the mechanism of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction (PICD) directs appropriate interventions.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly mitigates the identified circulatory risk.
Positioning the client supine with elevated legs increases venous return, and colloid administration restores intravascular volume.
Risk reduction prioritizes immediate hemodynamic stabilization over routine medication administration or contraindicated positioning.

Key Concept

Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction (PICD)
Question 1744Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client with severe anemia. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: Verify prescription/consent/vitals, Retrieve blood from the blood bank, Verify with a second nurse at the bedside, Initiate the transfusion slowly, and Remain with the client for 15 minutes to reassess vital signs.
Safe administration of packed red blood cells requires strict adherence to chronological safety checkpoints. First, the nurse must ensure the client is ready (consent, baseline vitals, patent IV) before retrieving the blood, as it expires in 30 minutes at room temperature. Once retrieved, two-nurse verification must occur at the bedside to prevent ABO incompatibility. The transfusion is initiated slowly to mitigate the severity of any potential reaction, and the nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes, as this is when life-threatening reactions are most likely to occur.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify the provider's prescription, confirm informed consent is signed, and assess baseline vital signs.
Ensures legal readiness and establishes a baseline to monitor for reactions.
Blood must be initiated within 30 minutes of leaving the blood bank. Gathering baseline vital signs first ensures the client does not have a fever that might delay the transfusion.
2
Retrieve the unit of packed red blood cells from the blood bank.
The specific unit of PRBCs is brought to the nursing unit.
This is done only after confirming the client is clinically ready and IV access is patent.
3
Verify the blood product, blood type, and client identity with a second registered nurse at the bedside.
Confirms an exact match between the client's identification band, the blood type, and the unit number.
Prevents fatal ABO incompatibility reactions. This must be done directly at the bedside, not at the nurses' station.
4
Spike the blood bag and initiate the transfusion at a slow rate of 2 mL/min.
The blood transfusion begins.
A slow initial rate limits the volume of blood infused, minimizing the severity of a reaction if one occurs.
5
Remain with the client and reassess vital signs 15 minutes after the transfusion begins.
The client is closely monitored during the most critical period.
Most severe transfusion reactions (e.g., acute hemolytic or anaphylactic) happen within the first 15 minutes or first 50 mL of blood.

Key Concept

Blood Transfusion Administration Safety and Sequencing
Question 1745Question →

A nurse is closely monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) through an 18-gauge peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the client reports acute shortness of breath, chest tightness, and severe lower back pain. Current vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 82/48 mmHg82/48\text{ mmHg}, a heart rate of 128 bpm128\text{ bpm}, and a temperature of 101.8∘F101.8^\circ\text{F} (38.8∘C38.8^\circ\text{C}). The nurse immediately stops the transfusion. Which of the following is the priority parenteral therapy action for the nurse to take next?

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Answer: Disconnect the blood administration set at the catheter hub and attach new IV tubing primed with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Answer

The correct action is to disconnect the blood administration set at the catheter hub and attach a completely new IV tubing setup primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
When a client experiences an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the infusion must be stopped immediately. However, the client is in hypotensive shock and requires emergency IV fluids and medications. To maintain the patent IV access safely, the nurse must disconnect the blood tubing directly at the catheter hub and attach a completely new, sterile IV tubing set primed with 0.9% sodium chloride. This prevents any of the incompatible blood remaining in the old tubing from entering the client's circulation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the clinical presentation.
The combination of acute shortness of breath, severe lower back pain, hypotension, and fever shortly after initiating a transfusion indicates an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Identifying the life-threatening nature of the reaction dictates the urgency of the response.
2
Identify the immediate life-saving intervention.
The nurse correctly stopped the transfusion as the first action.
Stopping the infusion prevents further exposure to the incompatible antigen.
3
Determine the next priority for parenteral management.
The client is in hypotensive shock (82/48 mmHg82/48\text{ mmHg}) and requires immediate IV fluid resuscitation and potentially vasopressors, necessitating patent IV access.
Maintaining the existing large-bore access is critical for survival.
4
Select the safest method to maintain IV access.
Disconnect the existing blood tubing directly at the hub and attach a new, sterile line primed with normal saline.
This preserves the IV site while ensuring none of the incompatible blood remaining in the old tubing is inadvertently pushed into the client's systemic circulation.

Key Concept

Management of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction requires immediately stopping the infusion and changing the entire IV tubing setup at the hub to maintain circulatory access for emergency resuscitation without bolusing the remaining incompatible blood.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1746Question →

A nurse receives a client who has just been admitted to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's vital signs are stable. Which of the following positions is the most appropriate for the nurse to assist the client into during the initial post-procedure period?

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Answer: Right side-lying position with a small towel roll placed under the puncture site

Answer

The right side-lying position with a small towel roll placed under the puncture site
The liver is a highly vascular organ located in the right upper quadrant. After a percutaneous liver biopsy, the primary risk is hemorrhage. Assisting the client into a right side-lying position, especially with a towel or small pillow under the puncture site, uses the client's own body weight to apply direct continuous pressure against the chest wall and liver capsule. This mechanical compression promotes hemostasis and reduces the risk of bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure performed and its primary complication.
The client underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a high risk of hemorrhage due to the high vascularity of the liver.
Understanding the procedural risks dictates the appropriate post-operative nursing interventions.
2
Determine the anatomical location of the liver and the puncture site.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, and the biopsy is typically performed through the right intercostal space.
Anatomical knowledge is required to apply targeted physical interventions.
3
Select the position that minimizes the risk of the primary complication.
Positioning the client on their right side with a towel roll under the ribs applies direct mechanical pressure to the biopsy site, promoting hemostasis.
Direct pressure is the primary physical mechanism used to stop or prevent bleeding after a percutaneous puncture.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Positioning for Hemostasis
Question 1747Question →

A 62-year-old client is admitted to the progressive care unit with severe right-sided lobar pneumonia. The client exhibits significant dyspnea, tachypnea, and a productive cough. Laboratory analysis of an arterial blood sample while the client is on 2 L/min of supplemental oxygen reveals a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg, PaO2 of 58 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 25 mEq/L. To immediately optimize ventilation-perfusion matching and reduce the risk of worsening respiratory failure, which action should the nurse perform?

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Answer: Assist the client into the left lateral decubitus position.

Answer

The nurse should assist the client into the left lateral decubitus position to place the healthy lung in the dependent position.
The correct action is to place the client in the left lateral decubitus position. The client is experiencing acute hypoxemia and uncompensated respiratory acidosis due to right-sided pneumonia. To optimize ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching, the client should be placed with the healthy lung down. Gravity directs more pulmonary blood flow to the dependent left lung, which is well-ventilated, thereby immediately improving overall gas exchange and oxygenation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas values and respiratory assessment findings.
The client has acute uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2) and significant hypoxemia (low PaO2) caused by right-sided pneumonia.
Identifying the physiological state is necessary to determine the appropriate immediate intervention.
2
Evaluate the relationship between positioning and pulmonary physiology in unilateral lung disease.
Gravity naturally directs greater pulmonary blood flow (perfusion) to the dependent, or lower, lung.
To maximize gas exchange, the lung with the best ventilation should receive the most blood flow.
3
Determine the optimal position for this specific client.
Placing the client on their left side (left lateral decubitus) positions the healthy left lung down and the diseased right lung up.
This "good lung down" strategy optimizes ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching, immediately improving oxygenation and reducing the risk of further physiological decompensation.

Key Concept

In clients with severe unilateral lung disease, positioning the client with the unaffected (good) lung in the dependent position maximizes ventilation-perfusion matching and improves oxygenation.
Question 1748Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous antibiotics for a severe bacterial infection. The nurse is monitoring the client for the development of systemic complications. Which of the following physiological findings provides the earliest indication that the client is entering the hyperdynamic (warm) phase of septic shock?

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Answer: Heart rate of 115 beats/minute, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin

Answer

The finding of a heart rate of 115 beats/minute, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin is the earliest indicator of hyperdynamic septic shock.
In the initial (hyperdynamic or 'warm') phase of septic shock, the body's inflammatory response to an infection causes profound peripheral vasodilation. To compensate for the resulting drop in systemic vascular resistance, the heart rate and stroke volume increase. This increased cardiac output combined with vasodilation produces the classic early signs of septic shock: tachycardia, bounding pulses, and warm, flushed skin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical context.
The client has a severe bacterial infection and is at high risk for developing septic shock.
Identifying the primary risk factor helps anticipate specific physiological complications and guides assessment priorities.
2
Differentiate the phases and types of shock.
Early septic shock (hyperdynamic phase) is characterized by massive peripheral vasodilation, unlike early hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock which feature peripheral vasoconstriction.
Understanding the unique pathophysiology of septic shock prevents confusing its early signs with other shock states.
3
Evaluate the clinical options against the pathophysiology of early septic shock.
Systemic vasodilation leads to warm skin and bounding pulses, while the heart rate increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output.
Matching the physiological mechanism (vasodilation) to the clinical signs (warm skin, bounding pulses) successfully identifies the correct early presentation.

Key Concept

Pathophysiology and Assessment of Early Septic Shock
Question 1749Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client with right-sided weakness from the bed to a wheelchair. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence to ensure a safe transfer.

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Answer

The correct sequence involves preparing the environment, assisting the client to a seated position, applying safety equipment, assuming proper stance, and executing the pivot transfer toward the strong side.
Safe transfer of a client with hemiparesis requires a systematic approach. First, the environment must be secured by locking the wheelchair on the client's strong (left) side. Next, the client is brought to a seated position to allow blood pressure to stabilize. Safety equipment (footwear and gait belt) is then applied. The nurse must then position themselves to protect the client's weak (right) side by bracing the knee. Finally, the transfer is executed by pivoting toward the strong side, maximizing the client's ability to assist and maintain balance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prepare the environment by positioning the wheelchair on the strong side and locking brakes.
The destination is safe and ready for the client.
Prevents leaving the client unsupported while managing equipment.
2
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed and observe.
The client acclimates to the upright position.
Minimizes the risk of orthostatic hypotension and syncope.
3
Put non-skid footwear on the client and apply a transfer belt.
The client and nurse are equipped for a safe transfer.
Footwear prevents slipping; the belt allows the nurse to maintain a firm, safe hold.
4
Face the client, grasp the belt, and brace the weak right knee.
The nurse is in position to support the client's weakness.
Bracing prevents the weak knee from collapsing when bearing weight.
5
Execute the stand and pivot toward the strong left side.
The client is successfully seated in the wheelchair.
Pivoting toward the unaffected side allows the client to use their strength to guide the movement.

Key Concept

Safe client transfer techniques and body mechanics
Question 1750Question →

An adult client on a medical-surgical unit is undergoing a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion for symptomatic anemia. Shortly after the initiation of the blood product, the client suddenly develops severe flank pain, chills, and shortness of breath. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct sequential order of priority.

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Answer

1. Stop the blood transfusion immediately. 2. Disconnect the blood tubing and maintain the IV line with normal saline using new tubing. 3. Obtain the client's vital signs and perform a focused cardiopulmonary assessment. 4. Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank of the suspected reaction. 5. Return the blood bag, attached tubing, and transfusion record to the blood bank.
The correct sequence prioritizes removing the offending agent immediately, maintaining venous access with safe fluids, assessing the client's current status, communicating with the medical team for further orders, and finally preserving evidence for laboratory investigation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the immediate life-saving priority action.
The blood transfusion is stopped immediately.
Halting the infusion prevents any further incompatible blood from entering the circulation, mitigating the severity of the acute hemolytic reaction.
2
Determine the secondary priority to support hemodynamics and venous access.
The IV line is maintained with normal saline using completely new IV tubing.
New tubing ensures that the remaining blood in the old tubing is not inadvertently pushed into the client, while normal saline preserves venous access for emergency medications.
3
Gather objective data to determine the client's physiological baseline after the reaction.
Vital signs and a focused cardiopulmonary assessment are obtained.
Objective data is required to determine the severity of the client's compromise and to accurately report the condition to the healthcare provider.
4
Communicate findings and coordinate interdisciplinary care.
The healthcare provider and blood bank are notified.
The provider will prescribe subsequent emergency interventions, and the blood bank must initiate an investigation into the reaction.
5
Ensure appropriate laboratory follow-up.
The blood bag, tubing, and associated paperwork are returned to the blood bank.
This allows the facility to analyze the blood product and determine the exact cause of the hemolytic reaction.

Key Concept

Prioritization of emergency nursing actions during an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Question 1751Question →

While monitoring a client receiving a newly prescribed intravenous cephalosporin, the nurse observes sudden-onset audible stridor, diffuse urticaria, and a precipitous drop in blood pressure to 78/46 mm Hg. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing acute anaphylaxis is to first stop the offending medication, secure the airway and provide oxygen, administer intramuscular epinephrine, initiate volume expansion with intravenous fluids, and finally administer adjunctive medications like antihistamines and corticosteroids.
In any acute hypersensitivity reaction, the standard of care dictates removing the offending trigger first. Once stopped, the nurse must follow the ABC prioritization framework. Stridor represents an immediate threat to the airway, making oxygenation the next priority. This is followed immediately by epinephrine to treat the systemic physiological collapse. Fluids are then pushed to treat the profound distributive shock. Finally, secondary medications (antihistamines and steroids) are given to manage ongoing inflammation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the infusion
Halts the delivery of the allergen into the bloodstream.
Removing the trigger is the most critical first action to prevent the anaphylactic reaction from worsening.
2
Maintain airway and oxygenate
Ensures oxygen delivery despite airway edema.
Stridor indicates upper airway compromise; oxygenation must be secured before administering medications.
3
Administer intramuscular epinephrine
Reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation.
Epinephrine is the life-saving, first-line drug for anaphylaxis and must be given as soon as the airway is managed.
4
Administer intravenous fluids
Expands intravascular volume.
Anaphylaxis causes severe distributive shock; fluid boluses are required to maintain blood pressure and tissue perfusion.
5
Administer adjunctive medications
Blocks histamine receptors and reduces inflammation.
These medications help resolve lingering symptoms and prevent a delayed secondary reaction, but they do not treat acute cardiovascular collapse.

Key Concept

Management of Anaphylactic Shock
Question 1752Question →

During a bedside assessment, a nurse evaluates a client undergoing continuous intravenous heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 105105 seconds. The latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results on 22 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula are: pH 7.387.38, PaCO2PaCO_2 4242 mm Hg, and PaO2PaO_2 8888 mm Hg. The client suddenly reports a new, severe throbbing headache and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Stop the continuous intravenous heparin infusion immediately.

Answer

The correct action is to stop the continuous intravenous heparin infusion immediately.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of an intracranial hemorrhage (sudden severe headache and blurred vision) in the setting of a supratherapeutic aPTT. An aPTT of 105105 seconds is significantly above the therapeutic range, indicating a severe bleeding risk. The most immediate priority is to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further life-threatening bleeding into the brain.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the aPTT laboratory value.
An aPTT of 105 seconds is significantly above the therapeutic range (usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal baseline), indicating profound anticoagulation and a severe risk for bleeding.
Understanding the bleeding risk associated with the current medication therapy establishes the client's baseline vulnerability.
2
Analyze the client's new clinical symptoms.
The sudden onset of a severe, throbbing headache and blurred vision strongly suggests increased intracranial pressure secondary to an intracranial hemorrhage.
Connecting supratherapeutic anticoagulation with acute neurological changes identifies a life-threatening procedural complication.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The continuous heparin infusion must be stopped immediately.
Removing the offending pharmacological agent is the most critical first step to prevent further catastrophic bleeding before notifying the provider and anticipating a head CT scan.

Key Concept

Prioritization and complication management in anticoagulant therapy
Question 1753Question →

A nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine through a peripheral venous catheter. During the hourly assessment, the nurse notes blanching, coolness, and swelling at the insertion site, and the client reports severe burning pain. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to minimize tissue injury? Arrange the actions from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the infusion, disconnect the tubing while leaving the cannula in place, aspirate residual medication, administer the prescribed antidote through the existing cannula, and finally elevate the extremity.
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha-adrenergic agonist and a known vesicant. When it extravasates into surrounding tissues, it causes severe, localized vasoconstriction that rapidly leads to tissue ischemia and necrosis. Risk reduction protocols dictate a specific sequence to mitigate this damage. The very first action must always be stopping the infusion. However, unlike a standard IV infiltration where the catheter is immediately pulled, the cannula must be left in place. This allows the nurse to aspirate any remaining drug and provides a direct route to administer a neutralizing antidote (such as phentolamine) deep into the affected tissues. Only after the active chemical threat is managed should supportive measures like elevation be implemented.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the continuous intravenous infusion.
Further delivery of the vesicant is halted.
The primary cause of the ongoing injury must be removed immediately to prevent further ischemic damage to the tissues.
2
Disconnect the administration tubing, leaving the cannula in place.
The source tubing is isolated while maintaining direct venous access to the extravasation site.
If the cannula is removed immediately, the nurse loses the most direct anatomical route to withdraw the drug and administer the necessary rescue antidote.
3
Aspirate residual medication.
Remaining norepinephrine is physically removed from the catheter and surrounding tissue pocket.
Physical removal decreases the total concentration of the vesicant in the tissue, limiting the extent of necrosis.
4
Administer the prescribed antidote (e.g., phentolamine).
The vasoconstrictive effects of the extravasated norepinephrine are reversed.
Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that causes vasodilation, restoring blood flow to the ischemic tissue and preventing necrosis.
5
Elevate the affected extremity.
Capillary hydrostatic pressure is reduced in the limb.
Elevation promotes fluid return to the central circulation, reducing the severe swelling associated with the extravasation.

Key Concept

Vesicant Extravasation Management
Question 1754Question →

An older adult client is completely immobile and receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a gastrostomy tube. The nursing team is preparing to provide perineal care and perform a complete bed linen change, which will require lowering the bed. Which nursing action is the most appropriate to ensure the client's safety during this basic care procedure?

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Answer: Suspending the continuous enteral feeding pump prior to lowering the head of the bed.

Answer

The safest approach is to suspend the continuous enteral feeding pump prior to lowering the head of the bed for the linen change.
When providing basic care that requires lowering the head of the bed, such as a complete linen change or bed bath, it is critical to pause continuous enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees is standard practice to prevent regurgitation and aspiration. Lowering the bed without first pausing the feeding significantly increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the need for basic hygiene care and a linen change.
The procedure will require the client to be turned and the head of the bed to be lowered.
To facilitate safe rolling, proper spinal alignment, and movement during the bed bath and linen replacement.
2
Suspend the continuous enteral feeding pump.
The infusion of nutritional formula is temporarily halted.
Prevents the introduction of formula into the stomach while the client is supine, thereby reducing the risk of gastric reflux and aspiration.
3
Lower the head of the bed and perform the necessary hygiene care.
The linen change is completed safely without compromising the client's airway.
A flat position prevents shearing forces during turning, while the paused feeding ensures airway protection.

Key Concept

Aspiration Precautions During Enteral Feeding
Question 1755Question →

A 72-year-old client is two hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery. The client suddenly reports severe shortness of breath. Assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 34/min, production of pink, frothy sputum, and coarse crackles throughout both lung fields. Which immediate action minimizes the risk of procedural complications while addressing the acute change in condition?

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Answer: Place the entire bed frame in the reverse Trendelenburg position and initiate supplemental oxygen.

Answer

Place the entire bed frame in the reverse Trendelenburg position and initiate supplemental oxygen.
The correct answer resolves two conflicting physiological needs. The client is experiencing acute pulmonary edema, which requires elevation of the upper body to decrease venous return and improve oxygenation. However, the client is only two hours post-femoral artery access, meaning the hip joint must remain straight (unflexed) to prevent arterial rupture and bleeding. Placing the entire bed frame in the reverse Trendelenburg position elevates the head and chest without bending the hips, safely managing both risks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's new assessment findings.
The client is exhibiting sudden severe dyspnea, tachypnea, pink frothy sputum, and coarse crackles.
These are classic signs of acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening complication of heart failure requiring immediate reduction in venous return (preload).
2
Identify the constraints imposed by the client's recent medical procedure.
The client had a PCI via the right femoral artery two hours ago.
Post-femoral access, the client must remain flat or with the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees to keep the hip straight and prevent arterial hemorrhage.
3
Determine the intervention that resolves the conflict between the acute condition and procedural constraints.
Selecting the reverse Trendelenburg position.
Reverse Trendelenburg tilts the entire bed, elevating the head and chest to relieve pulmonary edema while maintaining a strict 0-degree angle at the hip joint to protect the femoral puncture site.

Key Concept

Balancing acute pulmonary edema management with post-femoral access positioning requirements.
Question 1756Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary embolism who weighs 85.4 kg85.4\text{ kg}. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The current infusion rate is 14 units/kg/hr14\text{ units/kg/hr}. The heparin is supplied as 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water.

The client's morning activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 39 seconds39\text{ seconds}. According to the hospital's weight-based heparin protocol, for an aPTT between 3636 and 44 seconds44\text{ seconds}, the nurse must administer an intravenous bolus of 40 units/kg40\text{ units/kg} and increase the continuous infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr2\text{ units/kg/hr}.

Calculate the client's new continuous infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}. (Record your answer using one decimal place.)

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Answer: 13.7

Answer

13.7
To safely titrate a heparin infusion based on a protocol, the nurse must first determine the new dose by adding the prescribed increase to the current rate (14 + 2 = 16 units/kg/hr). Next, calculate the total hourly dose using the client's weight (16 units/kg/hr * 85.4 kg = 1366.4 units/hr). The concentration of the IV bag is 100 units/mL (25,000 units / 250 mL). Finally, divide the total hourly units by the concentration to find the pump rate in mL/hr (1366.4 / 100 = 13.664), which rounds to 13.7 mL/hr.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the new prescribed heparin dose per hour.
14 units/kg/hr + 2 units/kg/hr = 16 units/kg/hr
The protocol requires increasing the continuous infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr based on the subtherapeutic aPTT result.
2
Calculate the total required units of heparin per hour.
16 units/kg/hr * 85.4 kg = 1366.4 units/hr
The infusion is weight-based, so the per-kg dose must be multiplied by the client's weight.
3
Determine the concentration of the supplied heparin solution.
25,000 units / 250 mL = 100 units/mL
This establishes how many units of medication are in each mL of the IV fluid.
4
Calculate the final infusion pump rate.
1366.4 units/hr / 100 units/mL = 13.664 mL/hr
Dividing the total hourly units by the concentration yields the fluid volume needed per hour.
5
Round the calculated rate to one decimal place.
13.7 mL/hr
The question explicitly requires rounding to one decimal place.

Key Concept

Weight-based heparin protocol titration and IV pump rate calculation
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1757Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous dose of phenytoin to a client with a seizure disorder. The pharmacy delivers the medication labeled as 'phenytoin 300 mg in 50 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W)'. The client has a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride running at 50 mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold the medication and contact the pharmacy to request that the phenytoin be prepared in 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

Withhold the medication and contact the pharmacy to request that the phenytoin be prepared in 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions and will form a solid precipitate if mixed with 5% dextrose in water (D5W). The nurse must recognize this pharmacological incompatibility and intervene by withholding the medication and having the pharmacy prepare it in 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), which is the only compatible intravenous diluent for phenytoin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the supplied diluent.
The pharmacy supplied phenytoin mixed in 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Verifying the correct medication, dose, and diluent is a critical safety step before administration.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the medication with the supplied diluent.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with any dextrose-containing solutions.
Mixing phenytoin with dextrose causes the medication to form a solid precipitate, which can cause a potentially fatal embolus if administered.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention to ensure client safety.
The nurse must withhold the incorrectly mixed medication and obtain phenytoin prepared in 0.9% sodium chloride.
Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is the only compatible intravenous fluid for phenytoin administration.

Key Concept

Phenytoin Compatibility and Safe Intravenous Administration
Question 1758Question →

A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after a therapeutic thoracentesis in which 1,400 mL of pleural fluid was removed. Which finding indicates a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client develops a new, persistent cough and begins to expectorate pink, frothy sputum.

Answer

The finding that requires immediate intervention is the development of a new, persistent cough accompanied by pink, frothy sputum.
Following a thoracentesis where a large volume of fluid (typically defined as greater than 1,000 to 1,200 mL) is rapidly removed, the client is at an elevated risk for re-expansion pulmonary edema (REPE). This occurs due to the sudden shift in intrathoracic pressure and increased pulmonary capillary permeability as the collapsed lung tissue rapidly re-expands. A persistent, severe cough accompanied by pink, frothy sputum is a hallmark clinical sign of alveolar flooding and pulmonary edema. This indicates impending respiratory failure and requires immediate emergency interventions, such as applying high-flow supplemental oxygen and notifying the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the procedure performed.
The client underwent a therapeutic thoracentesis with 1,400 mL of fluid removed.
Removing a large volume of pleural fluid (typically greater than 1,000 to 1,200 mL) significantly increases the risk of a rapid intrathoracic pressure shift.
2
Evaluate the assessment findings against potential post-procedure complications.
Pink, frothy sputum indicates alveolar fluid accumulation, while the other findings represent expected or normal postoperative baselines.
Differentiating between expected post-operative baseline data and subtle or overt signs of physiological decompensation is essential for accurate risk reduction.
3
Identify the life-threatening emergency taking priority.
The cough and pink, frothy sputum represent re-expansion pulmonary edema (REPE).
REPE is a medical emergency that severely compromises the airway and gas exchange, requiring immediate oxygenation and provider notification.

Key Concept

Re-expansion pulmonary edema is a critical, life-threatening complication that can occur when large volumes of pleural fluid are rapidly drained.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1759Question →

A 62-year-old client with advanced hepatic cirrhosis is 1 hour post-paracentesis, during which 4.54.5 liters of ascitic fluid were removed. The client reports feeling extremely dizzy and exhibits delayed cognitive responses. The nurse assesses the following clinical data:

Assessment ParameterBaselineCurrent Finding
Blood Pressure128/82128/82 mm Hg94/5894/58 mm Hg
Heart Rate7878 bpm114114 bpm
Respiratory Rate1616 breaths/min2222 breaths/min
Arterial Blood GasNot drawnpH 7.487.48, PaCO2_2 3030 mm Hg, HCO3−_3^- 2222 mEq/L

Which action should the nurse take to mitigate the risk of severe physiological decompensation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a prescribed intravenous albumin infusion and position the client supine with the lower extremities elevated.

Answer

The nurse should initiate the prescribed intravenous albumin infusion and position the client supine with the lower extremities elevated.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction (PICD), a form of hypovolemic shock caused by massive fluid shifts following the rapid removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid. The priority is to restore intravascular volume and maintain cerebral perfusion. Administering intravenous albumin provides oncotic pressure to pull fluid back into the intravascular space, while positioning the client supine with elevated legs utilizes gravity to increase venous return to the heart.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends and clinical presentation.
The significant drop in blood pressure, compensatory tachycardia, and dizziness indicate acute hypovolemic shock (Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction).
Rapid removal of large volumes of ascitic fluid causes massive fluid shifts from the intravascular space into the peritoneal cavity.
2
Evaluate the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
A pH of 7.48 (alkalotic) and PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg (low) confirm uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
The client is hyperventilating as a compensatory physiological response to tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The immediate priority is to restore intravascular volume and maintain cerebral and cardiac perfusion.
Untreated hypovolemic shock rapidly progresses to cardiovascular collapse and organ failure.
4
Select the most appropriate evidence-based action.
Administering intravenous albumin and placing the client supine with elevated legs is the correct choice.
Albumin acts as a volume expander by increasing plasma oncotic pressure, while the modified Trendelenburg position uses gravity to increase venous return.

Key Concept

Paracentesis-Induced Circulatory Dysfunction (PICD) Management
Question 1760Question →

A nurse is preparing to draw up a mixed dose of Regular insulin and NPH insulin into a single syringe. Arrange the following steps of the procedure in the correct chronological sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the Regular vial, withdraw the Regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
To safely mix insulin without cross-contamination, the mnemonic 'RN' (Regular then NPH) or 'Clear before Cloudy' is universally applied. The sequence requires pressurizing the NPH vial first with air, then pressurizing the Regular vial, immediately withdrawing the Regular insulin, and finally withdrawing the NPH insulin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Roll the vial of NPH insulin gently between the palms of the hands.
The NPH insulin suspension is evenly mixed without creating air bubbles.
NPH insulin is a cloudy suspension that settles over time. Rolling resuspends it safely; shaking creates bubbles that can cause inaccurate dosing.
2
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
The NPH vial is pressurized for later withdrawal.
Air must be injected to prevent a vacuum, but the medication is not withdrawn yet to maintain the critical 'clear before cloudy' drawing sequence.
3
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the Regular insulin vial.
The Regular insulin vial is pressurized.
The nurse pressurizes the second vial and leaves the needle in place to immediately begin withdrawing the clear insulin.
4
Withdraw the prescribed dose of Regular insulin from its vial.
The exact dose of clear, rapid-acting insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Regular insulin (clear) must always be drawn up first to prevent accidental contamination of the vial with intermediate-acting (cloudy) NPH insulin.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin from its vial.
The exact dose of NPH insulin is added to the syringe, completing the mixed dose.
The cloudy insulin is drawn last. The nurse must carefully withdraw the exact amount, as pushing fluid back into the NPH vial would contaminate it with Regular insulin.

Key Concept

When mixing insulins in a single syringe, the clear (short-acting, Regular) insulin must always be drawn up before the cloudy (intermediate-acting, NPH) insulin to prevent altering the rapid-acting properties of the clear insulin vial.
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