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Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 questions

All types369Multiple choice188Multiple select62Matching81Ordering38
Question 301Question →

With reference to the International Solar Alliance (ISA), an international treaty-based multilateral organization, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was jointly launched by India and France on the sidelines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the UNFCCC held in Paris.; The interim secretariat and global headquarters of the organization are established in Gurugram, India.

Answer

The correct statements are that the International Solar Alliance was jointly launched by India and France during COP21 in Paris, and that its global secretariat is located in Gurugram, India.
The International Solar Alliance was jointly launched by India and France at the Paris Climate Conference (COP21) in 2015, and its international headquarters is based in Gurugram, India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate founding history and launch venue
Confirm joint India-France initiation at COP21 in Paris (2015).
The launch context is a fundamental structural fact of the alliance.
2
Verify institutional headquarters location
Confirm Gurugram, Haryana, India as the host location.
The ISA is notable as the first international intergovernmental body headquartered in India.
3
Assess membership criteria amendments
Identify that membership was expanded to all UN member states, invalidating tropical location restrictions.
The 2018 amendment (enforced 2020) opened ISA membership beyond solar-rich inter-tropical countries.
4
Examine organizational affiliation
Recognize ISA as an independent treaty body rather than a WMO subsidiary.
Multilateral intergovernmental organizations maintain independent founding treaties and governance assemblies.

Key Concept

Founding history, institutional headquarters, and updated membership provisions of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)
Question 302Question →

Match the state-specific welfare schemes listed in Column I with their respective implementing State Governments in Column II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Orunodoi Scheme
Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme
Mukhyamantri Vatsalya Yojana
YSR Rythu Bharosa

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Orunodoi Scheme matches with Assam; Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme matches with Tamil Nadu; Mukhyamantri Vatsalya Yojana matches with Uttarakhand; and YSR Rythu Bharosa matches with Andhra Pradesh.
Each scheme accurately corresponds to its launching state government based on official policy records: Orunodoi Scheme is executed by Assam, Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme by Tamil Nadu, Mukhyamantri Vatsalya Yojana by Uttarakhand, and YSR Rythu Bharosa by Andhra Pradesh.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match Orunodoi Scheme to its implementing state
Assam is the implementing state for Orunodoi Scheme.
Orunodoi is one of the largest direct financial benefit transfer schemes launched by Assam.
2
Match Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme to its implementing state
Tamil Nadu is the implementing state for Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme.
Tamil Nadu introduced free primary school breakfasts to combat nutrition gaps.
3
Match Mukhyamantri Vatsalya Yojana to its implementing state
Uttarakhand is the implementing state for Mukhyamantri Vatsalya Yojana.
Uttarakhand initiated this social security program for orphan child maintenance.
4
Match YSR Rythu Bharosa to its implementing state
Andhra Pradesh is the implementing state for YSR Rythu Bharosa.
YSR Rythu Bharosa provides farmer input cost support in Andhra Pradesh.

Key Concept

State-Specific Current Events, Welfare Schemes, and Policies
Question 303Question →

With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 enacted by the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. It establishes the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) as a digital-by-design body to adjudicate non-compliance and impose financial penalties.
2. Appeals against orders issued by the Data Protection Board of India are directed to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
3. The Act mandates strict data localization requiring all personal data of Indian citizens to be stored and processed exclusively within the physical territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately state statutory provisions under the DPDP Act, 2023. The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is the primary adjudicatory body for non-compliance, and its decisions are appealable to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT). Statement 3 is false because the 2023 Act permits cross-border transfer of personal data by default, unless the Central Government explicitly restricts transfers to specific countries/territories.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the adjudicatory body under the DPDP Act, 2023.
Statement 1 is correct. The Act provides for the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) to function as a digital-by-design body for inquiry, adjudication of non-compliances, and imposition of financial penalties.
Section 18 of the DPDP Act, 2023 authorizes the Central Government to establish the Data Protection Board of India.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the appellate mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct. Instead of creating a new appellate tribunal, the Act mandates that appeals against decisions of the Data Protection Board shall lie before the existing Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
Section 29 of the DPDP Act, 2023 designates TDSAT as the appellate authority to streamline administrative overhead.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding cross-border data flows and data localization.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The DPDP Act, 2023 adopts a negative list (blacklisting) approach for cross-border data transfers, permitting data transfers to countries/territories outside India unless specifically restricted by a notification from the Central Government.
Section 16 of the DPDP Act, 2023 shifted away from the strict hard data localization regime proposed in earlier draft bills (e.g., 2018 and 2019 drafts).

Key Concept

Key provisions and statutory architecture of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 304Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mahtari Vandan Yojana' launched by the Government of Chhattisgarh:

1. It provides direct financial assistance of ₹1,000 per month to eligible married women in the state.
2. The minimum age requirement for beneficiary women under this scheme is 21 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The Mahtari Vandan Yojana was launched by the Government of Chhattisgarh to promote gender empowerment and economic self-reliance. It grants ₹1,000 per month to eligible married women in Chhattisgarh who have attained at least 21 years of age as of January 1 of the calendar year.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding financial assistance
Statement 1 is correct.
The Mahtari Vandan Yojana provides ₹1,000 per month (totaling ₹12,000 annually) via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to eligible women.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding beneficiary age eligibility
Statement 2 is correct.
Married women (including widows, divorced, and abandoned women) who are residents of Chhattisgarh and aged 21 years or above are eligible.
3
Synthesize the evaluation to select the accurate option combination
The correct evaluation is that both statements are correct.
Since both provisions align with the scheme's official operational guidelines, the combined option stating both 1 and 2 is correct.

Key Concept

State-Specific Welfare Schemes and Eligibility Guidelines (Mahtari Vandan Yojana)
Question 305Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):

1. The permanent Secretariat of the SCO is located in Beijing, China, while its Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
2. India and Pakistan officially joined the SCO as full member states during the Dushanbe Summit in 2021.
3. Belarus officially became the tenth full member state of the SCO at the Astana Summit in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The statement regarding the SCO Secretariat in Beijing and RATS in Tashkent is accurate. Furthermore, Belarus officially joined as the 10th full member state during the Astana Summit in July 2024. However, the statement regarding India and Pakistan joining in 2021 is false, as both nations were admitted as full members at the Astana Summit in June 2017.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding institutional locations of the SCO.
Statement 1 is CORRECT. The SCO Secretariat is located in Beijing, China, and the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) executive committee is headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
These are the two permanent organs of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the accession timeline of India and Pakistan.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT. India and Pakistan were formally admitted as full members of the SCO during the Astana Summit in June 2017 (not Dushanbe 2021).
The Dushanbe Summit in 2021 initiated the accession process for Iran, whereas India and Pakistan completed full accession in 2017.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding recent member additions.
Statement 3 is CORRECT. Belarus officially completed all accession procedures to become the 10th full member of the SCO during the 24th Meeting of the Council of Heads of State in Astana, Kazakhstan (July 2024).
Iran became the 9th member in 2023, followed by Belarus as the 10th member in 2024.

Key Concept

Organizational structure, member expansions, and summit history of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Question 306Question →

Match the following key national governance initiatives and welfare schemes with their respective nodal implementing ministries:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM-PRANAM (Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth)
MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes)
SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas)
PM-DEVINE (Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North Eastern Region)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM-PRANAM matches with Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers; MISHTI matches with Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change; SHRESHTA matches with Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; PM-DEVINE matches with Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.
PM-PRANAM promotes alternative fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. MISHTI promotes mangrove afforestation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. SHRESHTA delivers targeted residential education for SC students under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. PM-DEVINE funds infrastructure in the North East under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective and domain of PM-PRANAM.
PM-PRANAM relates to fertilizer subsidy reduction and alternative fertilizers, corresponding to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
Fertilizer policy and subsidies fall directly under the Department of Fertilizers in the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
2
Identify the domain of MISHTI.
MISHTI targets mangrove ecosystem conservation and coastal afforestation, matching the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Coastal ecology and mangrove protection initiatives are managed under environmental conservation mandates.
3
Identify the target beneficiary and nodal authority for SHRESHTA.
SHRESHTA targets education for Scheduled Caste students, matching the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Social welfare schemes dedicated to Scheduled Castes fall under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
4
Identify the regional mandate of PM-DEVINE.
PM-DEVINE focuses specifically on infrastructure in the North East, matching the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region.
The Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region oversees dedicated Central Sector Schemes for the eight North Eastern states.

Key Concept

Nodal Ministry Allocation for National Flagship Schemes and Initiatives
Question 307Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):

1. It was formally established as a legal entity through the signing of its Founding Charter and Memorandum of Understanding in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
2. The full member nations of the Conclave comprise India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius, and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) adopted its Founding Charter and Memorandum of Understanding in Colombo, Sri Lanka, establishing its formal institutional mechanism. Its full member states currently consist of five Indian Ocean nations: India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius, and Bangladesh.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Founding Charter of the Colombo Security Conclave.
Statement 1 is correct. Member countries formally signed the Founding Charter and Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in Colombo, Sri Lanka, creating the legal framework for the regional security grouping.
Establishing a institutional charter and permanent secretariat in Colombo was the key outcome of the maritime security initiative.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the membership status of the Colombo Security Conclave.
Statement 2 is correct. The full members of the CSC are India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius, and Bangladesh (which officially joined as the fifth member state), while Seychelles participates as an observer.
Verifying the expanding membership footprint in the Indian Ocean Region.

Key Concept

Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Founding Charter & Regional Membership
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 308Question →

Which Union Ministry of the Government of India is the central nodal agency responsible for implementing the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme across rural India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Answer

Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The SVAMITVA scheme is a nationwide flagship initiative launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to establish clear ownership of property in rural inhabited areas by leveraging drone technology and issuing official property cards.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective and administrative scope of the SVAMITVA scheme.
SVAMITVA aims to provide property cards and clear land ownership validation to property owners in rural inhabited ('Abadi') areas using drone technology.
Determining the subject domain clarifies which government department oversees the policy.
2
Identify the central nodal ministry governing rural property records and local self-government institutions.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj leads the initiative in collaboration with State Revenue Departments, State Panchayati Raj Departments, and the Survey of India.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj holds jurisdictional responsibility over local village administration and property card distribution.

Key Concept

SVAMITVA Scheme Implementing Agency
Question 309Question →

Match the international organizations and multilateral initiatives in List-I with their corresponding founding features, headquarters, or primary objectives in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
Combined Maritime Forces (CMF)
Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) matches with the voluntary initiative launched by India in 2008; Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) matches with the forum established at the 1989 Canberra Ministerial Meeting; Combined Maritime Forces (CMF) matches with the multi-nation naval coalition headquartered in Bahrain; and Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) matches with the US-led coalition established in 2022 for critical mineral supply chains.
Each organization in List-I corresponds precisely to its defining characteristic in List-II: IONS was established by India in 2008 for littoral navies; APEC emerged from the 1989 Canberra meeting; CMF is a naval coalition based in Bahrain; and MSP is a 2022 US-led strategic mineral partnership.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the origin and structure of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS).
IONS was initiated by the Indian Navy in 2008 in New Delhi to create an inclusive maritime security forum for Indian Ocean littoral navies.
This pairs IONS directly with the 2008 Indian-led voluntary littoral state initiative.
2
Determine the founding conference of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
APEC was created during a meeting of senior ministers in Canberra, Australia, in November 1989.
This establishes the link between APEC and the 1989 Canberra Ministerial Meeting.
3
Examine the operating base and mission of Combined Maritime Forces (CMF).
CMF is a multinational naval coalition operating out of Naval Support Activity Bahrain.
This pairs CMF with the Bahrain-headquartered naval coalition focused on maritime security.
4
Identify the mandate of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).
MSP was formed in 2022 under US leadership to build strategic and sustainable supply chains for critical minerals.
This matches MSP with the 2022 US-led critical minerals initiative.

Key Concept

Multilateral Organizations, Regional Security Frameworks, and Strategic Economic Alliances
Question 310Question →

The Government of Tamil Nadu launched the flagship 'Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme' to support young school children. Which of the following statements regarding this initiative are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It provides free nutritious breakfast to children studying in Classes 1 to 5 in government primary schools.; A primary objective of the scheme is to tackle hunger and malnutrition while improving daily school attendance.

Answer

The correct statements are that the scheme provides free nutritious breakfast to children in Classes 1 to 5 in government primary schools, and aims to address hunger, combat malnutrition, and boost daily school attendance.
The Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme provides free morning meals to primary school students (Classes 1-5) in government schools across Tamil Nadu. Its core goal is to ensure children do not study on an empty stomach, thereby combating malnutrition and encouraging regular attendance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target beneficiary group for the Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme.
The scheme covers primary school children in Classes 1 to 5 studying in government schools.
State welfare policy guidelines specify primary school age groups as the primary target for morning nutrition interventions.
2
Analyze the financial model and key socio-economic objectives of the scheme.
The scheme is 100% state-funded (free of cost) and designed to improve health and school attendance.
Eliminating morning hunger directly correlates with higher retention rates and reduced child malnutrition.

Key Concept

Tamil Nadu Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme target beneficiaries and welfare objectives.
Question 311Question →

Match the international groupings and multilateral initiatives listed in List-I with their corresponding primary operational focus or domain mandate in List-II, and choose the correct matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

I2U2 Group
Colombo Security Conclave
Mekong-Ganga Cooperation
Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct alignment pairs the I2U2 Group with joint economic investments in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security; the Colombo Security Conclave with regional maritime safety and security in the Indian Ocean; the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation with culture, tourism, and education across the Mekong basin; and the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation with developmental partnership and climate resilience for Pacific Island nations.
The matching correctly links each multilateral forum to its official objective: I2U2 focuses on six sectors (water, energy, transportation, space, health, food security); the Colombo Security Conclave addresses maritime safety and security in the Indian Ocean; Mekong-Ganga Cooperation addresses socio-cultural and economic linkage across sub-Mekong nations; and FIPIC addresses developmental cooperation with Pacific Island nations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the I2U2 Group
I2U2 brings together India, Israel, UAE, and the USA to promote joint investments in six key areas: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.
Establishing the economic and technological scope of the I2U2 framework.
2
Identify the core objective of the Colombo Security Conclave
The Colombo Security Conclave focuses on Indian Ocean maritime security, combating transnational crime, counter-terrorism, and cyber security.
Differentiating regional maritime security platforms from economic partnerships.
3
Determine the functional mandate of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation
MGC links India with five ASEAN countries (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam) to foster cultural exchange, tourism, education, and transport infrastructure.
Verifying sub-regional cooperation frameworks in South and Southeast Asia.
4
Determine the role of FIPIC
FIPIC acts as a multilateral outreach forum for developmental initiatives and sustainable growth tailored to Pacific Island states.
Matching the diplomatic outreach forum with its target geographic region.

Key Concept

Multilateral Organizations and Regional Initiatives Focus Areas
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 312Question →

The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 was enacted by the Parliament of India to address paper leaks and organized malpractice in competitive examinations. In the context of the key legal provisions, penalties, and enforcement framework under this statutory act, which of the following statements is correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Act specifically applies to central public examination authorities including the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Staff Selection Commission (SSC), National Testing Agency (NTA), and Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs).

Answer

The statement specifying that the Act applies to central public examination authorities such as UPSC, SSC, NTA, and RRBs is correct.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 explicitly outlines its jurisdiction over key national recruiting bodies including the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Staff Selection Commission (SSC), National Testing Agency (NTA), Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), and Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scope and covered entities under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.
The Act defines 'public examination' as examinations conducted by UPSC, SSC, NTA, RRBs, and banking recruitment bodies.
Establishing the statutory jurisdiction of the legislation is essential for determining which bodies fall under its penal framework.
2
Evaluate the nature of offences created under the legislation.
Section 10 mandates that all offences under the Act are cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable.
This legal classification prevents offenders from securing routine bail or settling charges out of court.
3
Analyze penal provisions for organized syndicates and service provider agencies.
Service providers face fines up to ₹1 crore along with recovery of examination costs, and individual perpetrators face 3 to 10 years of imprisonment.
High financial and custodial penalties serve as strong economic deterrence against commercialized examination fraud.
4
Verify the implementing nodal administrative ministry.
The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions oversees the administration of the Act.
DoPT is the primary personnel management ministry for central government recruitment.

Key Concept

Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 - Statutory Provisions and Enforcement Architecture
Question 313Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF):
1. It was launched in May 2022 as a collaborative economic arrangement among partner nations in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. Unlike traditional trade agreements, its architecture excludes negotiations on tariff reductions and market access concessions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) was launched in Tokyo in May 2022. It focuses on four key pillars: Trade (Connected Economy), Supply Chains (Resilient Economy), Clean Economy, and Fair Economy. Crucially, IPEF is not a standard free trade agreement (FTA) and deliberately excludes negotiations on tariff reductions or market access commitments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the launch and establishment of IPEF.
Statement 1 is correct. The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) was officially launched in Tokyo in May 2022 by the United States and 13 partner countries in the region.
Verifying the origin, timeline, and foundational context of the international economic framework.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding tariff negotiations and trade deal structure.
Statement 2 is correct. IPEF is organized around four distinct pillars (Trade, Supply Chains, Clean Economy, and Fair Economy) and explicitly does not offer traditional tariff cuts or market access negotiations.
Distinguishing IPEF's regulatory and supply-chain focus from conventional multilateral free trade agreements.

Key Concept

Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) foundational features and scope
Question 314Question →

Under the flagship 'Yuva Nidhi' scheme implemented by the Government of Karnataka, what is the monthly financial assistance provided to eligible unemployed graduate degree holders?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: ₹3,000 per month for a maximum period of two years

Answer

The correct answer is ₹3,000 per month for a maximum period of two years.
The 'Yuva Nidhi' scheme, launched by the Government of Karnataka as one of its five core welfare guarantees, provides financial assistance of ₹3,000 per month to unemployed graduates and ₹1,500 per month to unemployed diploma holders for up to two years (24 months) if they remain unemployed after graduation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the state scheme and target beneficiary category
The question pertains to Karnataka's 'Yuva Nidhi' scheme specifically for unemployed graduate degree holders.
Different beneficiary tiers (diploma holders vs degree holders) receive distinct benefit amounts under the scheme.
2
Recall the prescribed policy payout and duration limits
Eligible degree holders receive ₹3,000 per month, while diploma holders receive ₹1,500 per month, for up to 24 months (two years) or until they gain employment.
These parameters form the core objective criteria of the state welfare policy.

Key Concept

Yuva Nidhi Scheme Provisions and Financial Assistance Rates
Question 315Question →

Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of the given statutory acts enacted by the Parliament of India, ordered from earliest to latest based on the date they received Presidential Assent?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest enactment is: Consumer Protection Act (August 2019), Major Port Authorities Act (February 2021), Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (April 2022), and Telecommunications Act (December 2023).
The correct order follows the timeline of Presidential Assent: Consumer Protection Act (August 2019), followed by Major Port Authorities Act (February 2021), Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (April 2022), and Telecommunications Act (December 2023).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of Presidential Assent for the Consumer Protection Act.
Assented on August 9, 2019.
Establishes the first item in the timeline.
2
Determine the date of Presidential Assent for the Major Port Authorities Act.
Assented on February 17, 2021.
Places this legislation second in sequence.
3
Determine the date of Presidential Assent for the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act.
Assented on April 18, 2022.
Places this legislation third in sequence.
4
Determine the date of Presidential Assent for the Telecommunications Act.
Assented on December 24, 2023.
Places this legislation as the final item in the sequence.

Key Concept

Chronology of Key Statutory Acts and Governance Legislation in India
Question 316Question →

Arrange the following key national governance initiatives launched by the Government of India in chronological order based on their launch date, from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to most recent is PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (October 2021), Tele-MANAS Initiative (October 2022), PM Vishwakarma Scheme (September 2023), and PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (February 2024).
The correct chronological order follows the launch sequence of these governance initiatives: PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (October 2021), Tele-MANAS Initiative (October 2022), PM Vishwakarma Scheme (September 2023), and PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (February 2024).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the launch timeline for PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan
October 2021
PM Gati Shakti was launched in October 2021 as a nationwide master plan for multi-modal infrastructure.
2
Determine the launch timeline for the Tele-MANAS Initiative
October 2022
Tele-MANAS was launched on World Mental Health Day in October 2022.
3
Determine the launch timeline for the PM Vishwakarma Scheme
September 2023
PM Vishwakarma was officially launched on Vishwakarma Jayanti in September 2023.
4
Determine the launch timeline for PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
February 2024
PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana was announced and launched in February 2024.
5
Sequence the initiatives chronologically
PM Gati Shakti (2021) → Tele-MANAS (2022) → PM Vishwakarma (2023) → PM-Surya Ghar (2024)
Arranging the years chronologically yields the correct order.

Key Concept

Chronology of National Governance Initiatives and Welfare Schemes
Question 317Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty initiated at the G20 Leaders' Summit:

1. It was officially launched during the G20 Summit hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro.
2. The Alliance is structured as a legally binding treaty that mandates fixed annual financial contributions from all participating G20 nations.
3. It focuses on facilitating the implementation of country-led programs to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct answer highlights that statements 1 and 3 are accurate. The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty was championed by Brazil during the G20 Rio de Janeiro Summit to mobilize global support for achieving SDG 1 and SDG 2. Statement 2 is incorrect because the platform relies on voluntary cooperation, policy matching, and partnership support rather than binding treaty obligations or compulsory financial levies.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the host nation and venue.
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty was formally launched at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro under the Brazilian G20 presidency.
Brazil made combating poverty, hunger, and inequality a core flagship initiative of its G20 leadership.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding institutional mechanisms and legal status.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The alliance is not a legally binding treaty, nor does it enforce mandatory financial assessments on G20 members.
It functions as a voluntary, open policy-sharing and resource-matching framework designed to support national policy implementation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding core objectives and target UN Sustainable Development Goals.
Statement 3 is correct. The alliance aims to accelerate progress toward SDG 1 (No Poverty) and SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) by scaling up successful national cash transfers, social protection, and sustainable agriculture programs.
The core thematic pillar aligns directly with eradication of extreme hunger and poverty.

Key Concept

G20 Rio Summit Outcomes and Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty
Question 318Question →

Match the state-specific welfare schemes in List I with their primary sector objectives in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana (Maharashtra)
Mukhyamantri Gram Gaddi Yojana (Jharkhand)
Mukhyamantri Vriksh Sampada Yojana (Chhattisgarh)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana pairs with Financial assistance for senior citizens requiring physical disability aids; Mukhyamantri Gram Gaddi Yojana pairs with Rural transport connectivity and travel fare concessions; Mukhyamantri Vriksh Sampada Yojana pairs with Promotion of commercial tree plantation on private land.
Each scheme is accurately mapped to its core sector objective: Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana assists senior citizens with disability aids, Mukhyamantri Gram Gaddi Yojana enhances rural bus connectivity and fare concessions, and Mukhyamantri Vriksh Sampada Yojana promotes commercial tree cultivation on private land.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana.
It targets senior citizens (65+) in Maharashtra for acquiring disability aids and physical support devices.
This directly matches the senior citizen assistance objective.
2
Identify the target domain of Mukhyamantri Gram Gaddi Yojana.
It is designed by the Jharkhand government to connect remote rural villages to block headquarters via subsidized buses.
This directly matches rural transport connectivity.
3
Identify the primary objective of Mukhyamantri Vriksh Sampada Yojana.
It is an agroforestry and environment initiative in Chhattisgarh aimed at commercial tree cultivation on farmers' private land.
This directly matches commercial tree plantation promotion.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Policy Objectives
Question 319Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the New Development Bank (NDB) are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was established following the signing of the founding agreement at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza in 2014.; Each founding member state holds equal voting rights, with no single founding member possessing veto power.; The permanent headquarters of the New Development Bank is located in Shanghai, China.

Answer

The correct statements are that the New Development Bank was established by the Fortaleza Agreement in 2014, founding members possess equal voting power without veto rights, and its permanent headquarters is situated in Shanghai, China.
The statements confirming the 2014 Fortaleza Summit origin, the equal voting rights structure without individual veto powers, and the Shanghai headquarters are all factual and accurate governance details of the New Development Bank.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statement regarding founding summit and treaty
Confirmed that NDB was officially agreed upon and signed during the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil (2014).
Establishing treaties define the international legal framework of multilateral institutions.
2
Analyze institutional governance structure and voting rights
Verified that all five founding members subscribed equal capital shares, resulting in equal voting power.
Governance architecture distinguishes NDB from Bretton Woods institutions.
3
Verify membership eligibility and expansion rules
Determined that membership is open to all UN member states, so restricting membership solely to founding BRICS states is incorrect.
NDB expansion policy permitted admittance of non-BRICS states like UAE, Bangladesh, and Egypt.
4
Confirm headquarters location
Verified that Shanghai, China serves as the central headquarters for NDB operations.
Host city allocation is a key structural fact for international financial bodies.

Key Concept

Founding treaty, governance framework, membership expansion rules, and organizational headquarters of the New Development Bank (NDB).
Question 320Question →

Which of the following is the primary objective of 'Mission Karmayogi', a major national governance initiative launched by the Government of India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To build a future-ready civil service through comprehensive civil services capacity building

Answer

The primary objective of Mission Karmayogi is to transform civil services capacity building by laying down a modern framework for continuous learning, competency building, and behavioral transformation of government officials.
The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), popularly known as Mission Karmayogi, was launched to reform Indian bureaucracy by establishing a institutional framework for continuous capacity building, role-based training, and skill enhancement of civil servants across all levels.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core focus of Mission Karmayogi
Mission Karmayogi is officially titled the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB).
Understanding the expansion and background of the initiative clarifies its target domain.
2
Analyze the specific mandate of the programme
It aims to shift civil service training from a 'rule-based' approach to a 'role-based' HR management framework.
Evaluating the policy mandate helps identify the correct option among governance initiatives.

Key Concept

Mission Karmayogi (National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building)
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