A 26-year-old man comes to the office due to a 5-day history of right knee swelling and pain. He also reports a mild burning sensation during urination and bilateral eye redness that started around the same time. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Three weeks ago, he had a 4-day episode of abdominal cramps and watery diarrhea that resolved without medical treatment. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral conjunctival injection. The right knee is swollen, warm, and tender to palpation with a moderate effusion. Arthrocentesis is performed. Synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 24,000/mm³ with a negative Gram stain and no crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?
- AIntravenous ceftriaxone
- BOral methotrexate
- COral allopurinol
- Oral ibuprofenAnswer
- EIntra-articular glucocorticoid injection