A 71-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for new-onset abdominal distension and altered mental status. He was admitted one week ago for treatment of healthcare-associated pneumonia and has been receiving intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Two days ago, he developed multiple episodes of watery diarrhea, but he has had no bowel movements for the past . Current temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a lethargic patient. The abdomen is grossly distended, tympanic to percussion, and diffusely tender with absent bowel sounds.
Laboratory results are as follows:
| Parameter | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | ||
| Serum creatinine | ||
| Lactic acid |
An abdominal plain film shows a transverse colon diameter of without free intraperitoneal air. Stool enzyme immunoassay is positive for both glutamate dehydrogenase antigen and *Clostridioides difficile* toxins A and B. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention?
- AIntravenous vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole
- BEnteral fidaxomicin monotherapy
- CEnteral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole
- Enteral vancomycin, rectal vancomycin, and intravenous metronidazoleAnswer
- EIntravenous ceftriaxone and oral metronidazole