A 48-year-old man is evaluated on his second day of hospitalization for acute pancreatitis. He initially presented with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, and laboratory studies on admission showed a serum lipase level of . The patient has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. He has been receiving aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation and pain management.
Currently, the patient reports some improvement in his abdominal pain. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with epigastric tenderness, but no guarding or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen demonstrates diffuse pancreatic enlargement with peripancreatic fluid collections and uniform enhancement of the pancreatic parenchyma. There is no evidence of gas within the fluid collections.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management regarding pharmacotherapy?
- Continue current supportive care without antimicrobial therapyAnswer
- BInitiate intravenous imipenem-cilastatin
- CInitiate intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DInitiate intravenous ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- EInitiate intravenous ceftriaxone