A -year-old male is admitted directly to the resuscitation bay following an episode of profuse hematemesis at his residence. For the preceding weeks, he noted intermittent melena, subjective fevers, and a deep, gnawing lumbar ache. His surgical history is significant for a synthetic graft repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm years ago. On arrival, he is confused and diaphoretic. Vital signs include a temperature of (), heart rate of , blood pressure of , and respiratory rate of . Abdominal examination reveals a well-healed midline scar and mild epigastric tenderness without guarding. Intravenous access is established, and aggressive fluid resuscitation is initiated, but his blood pressure remains . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AContrast-enhanced cross-sectional imaging of the abdomen and pelvis
- Immediate exploratory laparotomy with proximal vascular controlAnswer
- CDeferral of procedural intervention until the designated healthcare proxy arrives
- DTargeted antimicrobial therapy and supportive care in the intensive care unit
- EIntravenous loop diuretic administration and noninvasive respiratory support