A -year-old woman comes to the outpatient clinic reporting a -day history of frequent, watery stools, accompanied by intermittent periumbilical cramps and mild nausea. She works as a veterinary technician and recently cleaned several reptile enclosures. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination shows moist mucous membranes and normal skin turgor. The abdomen is soft and non-tender with hyperactive bowel sounds. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . A stool culture returns positive for non-typhoidal \textit{Salmonella}. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous ceftriaxone
- BOral azithromycin
- Observation and oral fluid replacementAnswer
- DOral ciprofloxacin
- EOral vancomycin
Answer
Observation and oral fluid replacement
The correct answer is observation and oral fluid replacement. This patient has a classic presentation of non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis, commonly associated with handling reptiles (e.g., turtles, lizards) or consuming undercooked poultry. In healthy, immunocompetent individuals aged to years with mild to moderate disease, the infection is self-limiting. Antibiotic therapy is contraindicated in this demographic because it does not significantly shorten the duration of symptoms and actually prolongs asymptomatic fecal shedding of the bacteria. Treatment should focus entirely on supportive care and maintaining hydration.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of acute non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis
Estimated Time:1m 15s