A 55-year-old man with a history of decompensated alcohol-related cirrhosis is evaluated on hospital day 3. He initially presented to the emergency department with a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F), diffuse abdominal pain, and worsening lethargy. A diagnostic paracentesis performed on admission yielded ascitic fluid with a neutrophil count of . Due to a history of multiple recent hospitalizations, he was empirically started on intravenous meropenem. Today, his mental status has returned to baseline, his abdominal pain has markedly improved, and he is afebrile. Ascitic fluid cultures obtained on admission have finalized, growing *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing indicates the organism is susceptible to cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, and ciprofloxacin, but resistant to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- De-escalate therapy to intravenous cefotaximeAnswer
- BMaintain current therapy with intravenous meropenem
- CAdd oral metronidazole to the current regimen
- DTransition to intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue all antibiotics and begin daily prophylactic norfloxacin